ssd2 mod 2

20 October 2023
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131 test answers

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Sergeants
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Red Epaulette
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Corporals
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Worsted Epaulette
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Infantry
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White Epaulette
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Artillery
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Yellow Epaulette
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Cavalry
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Blue Epaulette
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1958
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In what year did the Army adopt the chevron system that is in use today?
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20
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In 1902, the insignia returned to the point-up position. How many distinctive NCO chevrons did the Army retain at that time?
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1976
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The Army formalized and expanded the functions of the NCO support channel in what year?
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Master Sergeants
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Who serves as the principle NCO in staff elements at battalion or higher levels?
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Command Sergeant Major
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Who carries out policies and standards on performance, training, appearance, and conduct of enlisted personnel?
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Train Soldiers
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Which of the following is the principle duty of the first sergeant?
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1966
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What year was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
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1. Advise and assist the President and the Secretary of Defense in performing command functions. 2. Attend and participate in meetings of the National Security Council (NSC) and Homeland Security Council (HSC) subject to the direction of the President. 3. Carry out assigned functions, duties, and responsibilities such as prescribing the duties and functions of the Vice Chairman of the JCS and the joint staff, all subject to the approval of the Secretary of Defense. 4. Oversee the activities of the Combatant Commands.
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Subject to the authority, direction, and control of the President and the Secretary of Defense, the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff shall perform the following duties:
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Navy and Marine Corps
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Which branches of service comprise the nation's principal maritime force?
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U.S. Air Force
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Which branch provides the nation with global vigilance, global reach, and global power?
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U.S. Coast Guard
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Which branch resides within the Department of Homeland Security?
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U.S. Army
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Which branch is responsible for the prosecution of war and military operations and is the nation's principal land force?
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U.S. Marine Corps
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Which branch conducts security and stability operations and assist with establishing a military government?
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Navy
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Which branch employs the global reach, persistent presence through forward-stationed and rotationally-based forces?
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1. Restraint 2. Perseverance 3. Legitimacy
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What are the three principles of joint operations?
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1. Strategic 2. Operational 3. Tactical
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What are the three levels of war?
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Strategic
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Which level of war develops an idea or set of ideas for employing the instruments of national power in a synchronized and integrated fashion to achieve theater, national, and/or multinational objectives in the context of military operations?
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Operational
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Which level of war links the tactical employment of forces to national and military strategic objectives?
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Tactical
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Which level of war does joint doctrine focus on for planning and executing battles, engagements, and activities and is the employment and ordered arrangement of forces in relation to each other?
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JP 3-0
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Which of the following is the keystone document in the joint operations series?
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Traditional principles of war
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The principles of joint operations are formed around what?
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The strategic environment
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Which of the following presents five broad national security challenges likely to require the employment of joint forces?
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Command and Control - C2
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Which joint function encompasses the exercise of authority and direction by a commander over assigned and attached forces to accomplish the mission
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Intelligence
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Which joint function supports this understanding by providing integrated, evaluated, analyzed, and interpreted information concerning a foreign nation's hostile or potentially hostile forces or elements, or areas of actual or potential operations and tells JFCs what the enemy is doing, is capable of doing, and may do in the future?
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Fires
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Which joint function allows you to use available weapons and other systems to create a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target?
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Movement and Maneuver
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Which joint function encompasses the disposition of joint forces to conduct operations by securing positional advantages before or during combat operations and by exploiting tactical success to achieve operational and strategic objectives?
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Protection
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Which joint function focuses on preserving the joint force's fighting potential in four primary ways (active, passive, application of technology, and emergency management)?
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Sustainment
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Which joint function is the provision of logistics and personnel services necessary to maintain and prolong operations through mission accomplishment and redeployment of the force and provides the JFC with the means to enable freedom of action and endurance, and the ability to extend operational reach?
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National Security Challenge
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Establishing, maintaining, and enhancing security cooperation among our alliance and partner identifies what?
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1. Companies, troops, and batteries 2. Numbered units and detachments 3. Missions 4. Army elements of unified commands and joint task forces 5. Service schools 6. Area commands
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Commands include which of the following?
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Correct, educate, and reform offenders when the imposing commander determines the Soldier will not benefit from less stringent measures.
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Prompt action is essential for nonjudicial punishment to have the proper corrective effect. Nonjudicial punishment may be imposed to accomplish which of the following?
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Correct misconduct violations of the UCMJ.
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Which of the following is the purpose of nonjudicial punishment?
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Extra training or instruction
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Which of the following is one of the most effective nonpunitive measures available to a commander?
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1. Was an offense committed? 2. Was the Soldier involved in the offense? 3. What is the character and military record of the suspect?
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What are three primary questions you must ask when conducting a preliminary inquiry?
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1. If the Soldier committed the act or not. 2. If the act is in violation of standards, professional conduct, or it is a breach of discipline or insubordination. 3. Prepare your recommendation in memorandum format or as required by local directive.
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What are the three things you must accomplish in the process of determining the credibility of evidence and information?
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DA Form 2627
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What form do you use during an Article 15 procedure?
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Informal
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Which process does a preliminary inquiry usually follow?
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Section V, DA Form 2627-1
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Where will you find the provisions regarding clemency?
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Decision
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Soldiers are afforded the opportunity, normally 24 hours, to accept an Article 15. In which of the following stages does this occur?
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Demand trial by court martial
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The imposing commander may proceed with a hearing unless a Soldier decides to do which of the following?
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Five calendar days
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Which of the following is considered to be a reasonable amount of time to submit an appeal?
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To call witnesses and present evidence
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A Soldier has the right to remain silent and the right to demand trial. Which of the following are other rights a Soldier has?
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14 days
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Which of the following is the maximum time limit a commander may impose for extra duties?
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Defense Counsel
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Who can act as a spokesperson as well as a legal representative?
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Unsworn Statements
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Which of the following is relevant when the commander is considered evidence, before a court-martial?
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1. Counseling 2. Coaching 3. Mentoring
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Which of the following are the principle ways in which leaders develop other?
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1. Purpose 2. Flexibility 3. Respect 4. Communication 5. Support
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What are the characteristics of counseling?
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To help develop soldiers to become future leaders
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Why should leaders perform developmental counseling on a regular basis?
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Career Development
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Which of the following is NOT an example of event-oriented counseling?
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Develop a plan for improvement that includes corrective training
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What should you do if a Soldier's performance is unsatisfactory because of a lack of knowledge or ability?
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Standards
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Establishing ___ is essential in ensuring Soldiers know what is expected of them and how to achieve success.
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Professional Growth
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What type of counseling would you conduct to assist subordinates in achieving organizational and individual goals?
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The Senior Rater
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Who is responsible for ensuring that all evaluation reports are complete, provide a realistic evaluation of the rated Soldier, and are submitted to HQDA in a timely manner?
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60 calendar days
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What is the minimum time requirement to be eligible to perform as the senior rater?
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EEFI (Essential Elements of Friendly Information)
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Questions that an adversary is likely to ask about friendly capabilities, activities, limitations, and intentions?
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OPSEC
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Identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions related to military operations.
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Critical Information
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Specifies nine categories of information that can be withheld from release if requested by the public.
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Sensitive Information
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Any information requiring special protection from disclosure.
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FOIA
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Information that is important to the successful achievement of U.S. objectives and missions.
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Development
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Which of the following is a primary responsibility of the OPSEC program officer at division level?
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1. Identification of critical information 2. Analysis of threats 3. Analysis of vulnerabilities 4. Assessment of risk 5. Application of OPSEC measures
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What are the Five-Steps of the OPSEC process?
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Identification of crucial information
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Which of the following steps in the five-step OPSEC process, as the purpose of determining what needs protection?
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Exposure
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Refers to observation (when and for how long it has appeared) of an indicator.
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Signature
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The characteristic of an indicator that makes it identifiable or causes it to stand out.
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Profiles
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Functional activity that generates its own set of unique indicators, patterns, and associations.
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Contrasts
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The most reliable means of detection because they depend on differences to established profiles.
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Association
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The relationship of an indicator to other information or activities.
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Traditional Threats
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When our adversaries employ recognized military capabilities and forces in familiar symmetric forms of conflict, this poses traditional threats.
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Irregular Threats
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Come from adversaries employing unconventional methods to counter the traditional advantages of stronger opponents.
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Catastrophic Threats
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Involve the acquisition, possession, and use of weapons of mass destruction (WMD), or methods producing effects of WMD.
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Disruptive Threats
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Can come from adversaries who develop and use breakthrough technologies to negate U.S. advantages in key operational domains.
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The criminal threat
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This threat is not as readily apparent to identify. They will collect open source and unclassified information that is publicly available, as well as information they can obtain through various means such as money or coercion, and information they can obtain from insiders of the unit or organization they target. The supporting CID unit may be able to assist both in identifying crime conducive conditions that increase the risk of compromise of critical information, and in mitigating or eliminating the criminal threat.
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Non-state actors
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These adversaries do not have a formal and recognized government and are international or transnational in nature, and as a result, they are difficult to identify and locate. They do not employ traditional military forces or intelligence services.
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Nation states
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These are adversaries who are readily identifiable and employ traditional military forces and professional intelligence services that collect information through a variety of methods. They are also placing an emphasis on collecting open source and unclassified information as well as human intelligence collection, since they are far less expensive, and in some ways more effective than expensive and highly technical means of collection.
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Domestic threats
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These adversaries are not as readily apparent to identify as they are part of the local population. They do not likely have a formal intelligence collection service, but they have the advantage of detailed knowledge of the area and people within the places where they live and operate. The information they seek and obtain is readily available as open source and unclassified information.
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Hackers
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They are highly skilled computer programmers who specialize in computer and network systems security.
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Insiders
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This threat consists of personnel who work inside the unit or organization. They are the most dangerous threat because of their accessibility and clearance within the organization. They are also very difficult to identify when they can keep their collection activities unnoticed. For these reasons, share sensitive and critical information only with personnel with a "need to know."
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All-Source Intelligence
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A separate intelligence discipline. It is intelligence products, organizations, and activities that incorporate all sources of information and intelligence, including open-source information, in the production of intelligence.
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HUMINT
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A multidiscipline approach to intelligence collection that seeks access to information that is not accessible through other collection assets.
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IMINT
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There are four major collection platforms, air, land, sea and space.
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SIGINT
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Incorporates the sub-disciplines of communications intelligence (COMINT) electronics intelligence (ELINT), and foreign instrumentation signals intelligence (FISINT).
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MASINT
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The scientific and technical intelligence obtained by quantitative and qualitative analysis of data derived from technical means for the purpose of identifying any distinctive features associated with the source, emitter, or sender, and to facilitate subsequent identification or measurement.
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TECHINT
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The collection and analysis of threat and foreign military equipment and associated material for the purposes of preventing technological surprise, assessing foreign scientific and technical capabilities, and developing countermeasures designed to neutralize an adversary's technological advantages.
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CI
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The final item of discussion under intelligence disciplines. CI counters or neutralizes the adversary's intelligence collection efforts through collection, counterintelligence investigations, operations, analysis, production, and functional and technical services. CI includes all actions taken to detect, identify, track, exploit, and neutralize the multidiscipline intelligence activities of friends, competitors, opponents, adversaries, and enemies.
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What is the purpose of adversary collection activities?
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To obtain and exploit indicators that will negatively impact a mission.
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What are the three sub-intelligence discipline in signal intelligence (SIGINT)?
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COMINT, ELINT, FISINT
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What does an adversary use to formulate the analyst's perception of our operations?
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Indicators
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Operation Security (OPSEC) is used to identify which of the following?
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Actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems
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Which of the following entries describe non-judicial punishment?
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Administrative reprimands and admonitions
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When does the decision period start?
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Upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation
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What type of process is used within the Operations Security (OPSEC) program to protect critical information?
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A five step process
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What are the names of the Army's intelligence functions?
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HUMINT, IMINT, SIGNT, MASINT, TECHINT, AND CI
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Which system applies to those Soldiers who are not amenable to correction by nonpunitive or nonjudicial method of correction or discipline?
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Court-martial system
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The goal of the court-martial system is to do what?
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Administer Justice
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An act for which the law provides a penalty is called what?
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A crime
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What are the two types of court-martial counsel?
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Trail and Defense Counsel
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During a court-martial, who represents the government?
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Trial Counsel
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Which of the following is the maximum time limit a commander may impose for restriction
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14 Days
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what is the first step of the five performance steps that must be completed prior to conducting a counseling session?
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Determine the type of counseling
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Which DA Form will you use when conducting a mandatory, face to face performance counseling?
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DA 4856
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When is counseling conducted for NCO's?
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Within 30 days after the beginning of the rating period and quarterly thereafter
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Which of the following describes mentoring?
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A future-oriented development activity focused on growing in the profession
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of effective counseling?
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punishment
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What process do leaders use to review the demonstrated performance and potential of their subordinates?
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Counseling
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Which military operations are ongoing routine activities that establish, shape, maintain, and refine relations with other nations and domestic civil authorities?
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Major operations and campaigns
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Which branch of the US Armed Forces is composed of naval, land, air, space, and cyberspace forces, both combat and support, not otherwise assigned, that includes the necessary forces and capabilities to operate and support the Navy and Marine Corps, other military services, and joint forces?
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Navy
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Which branch of the US Armed Forces is composed of land combat and service forces, with includes aviation, water transport, and space and cyberspace?
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Marine Corps
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Who is the principle military advisor to the President, the National Security Council (NSC), the homeland security council (HSC), and the secretary of defense?
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The chairman of the joint chiefs
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Which military operations comprise extended-duration, large-scale operations that usually involve combat?
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Major Operations and campaigns
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On what are the principles of joint operations formed?
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Joint publication keystone document
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Which of the following are narrative rules for constructing bulleted comments?
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Bulleted comments are mandatory Bulleted comments must not be longer than two lines Use specific examples only once
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Which of the following are valid senior rater entries in the overall performance section?
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Poor Fair Successful
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What links the day-to-day observation of the rated soldier to the long-term evaluation of the rated Soldier's potential by HQDA selection boards?
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The rater's comments
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In which section of the senior rater's portion of an evaluation report would one document if a senior rater does not meet minimum time requirements for evaluation of the rated NCO?
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Section e
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The APFT entry may be left blank in which of the following situations?
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60 years of age and older If the APFT has not been taken within 12 months of the "THRU" date of the report
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Which senior rater entry in the overall performance section denotes performance that may require additional training/observation and non-recommendation for promotion?
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Fair
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Which of the following ranks are not part of the formal chain of command?
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Command Sergeant Major
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Which of the following ranks serve as team leaders of the smallest Army units?
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corporal
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Which of the following ranks serve as the senior enlisted advisor and consultant to the chief of staff of the army?
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Sergeant Major of the Army
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Which of the following ranks are responsible for developing, maintaining, and utilizing the full range of their Soldier's potential?
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Sergeants
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Which of the following ranks are considered to have the greatest impact on soldiers due to their oversight of the soldier daily task
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Sergeants
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In 1851, a new uniform requirement establishment a system of branch colors, and chevrons reverted to the point-down position. In what year did the chevrons return to the point-up position?
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1902
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Which of the following terms can be defined as standards by which one should act based on values?
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Ethics
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Which of the following terms comprises stages of awareness?
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Committed Thoughtful Habitual
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The Multi-Source Assessment and Feedback (MSAF) program is under the organization and direction of the ______
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Center for Army Leadership (CAL)
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What are the two classifications of critical information?
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Classified and unclassified