A cleft palate arises when the right and left _____________ bones fail to fuse medially during fetal development.
maxillae
mandibles
inferior nasal conchae
middle nasal conchae
answer
maxillae
The palatine processes of the maxillae form the anterior two-thirds of the hard palate.
question
Dysplasia of the hip may occur due to congenital malformation of the __________.
femur
sacrum
coccyx
pubis
answer
pubis
The hip bone consists of three separate bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis. At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis is a deep hemispherical socket called the acetabulum on the lateal surface of the pelvis. The acetabulum receives the head of the femur, or thigh bone, at this hip joint. In dysplasia of the hip, the acetablulum forms incompletely or the ligaments of the hip joint are lose, so the head of the femur slips out of its socket.
question
What structures develop as a result of gravity acting on the skeleton after birth?
the arches
the secondary curvatures
the primary curvatures
the fontanelles
answer
the secondary curvatures
The secondary curvatures are associated with the spine; they develop after birth. The cervical curvature develops when the baby picks its head up against gravity. The lumbar curvature develops when the baby begins to walk.
question
Since mastoid infections may spread to the brain, surgical removal of the mastoid process was once considered to be the best way to prevent brain inflammation. Unfortunately, this also had the side-effect of causing ____________.
deafness in the adjacent ear
impaired head and neck movements
difficulties in maintaining body balance
swallowing problems
answer
impaired head and neck movements
This region of the temporal bone is the origin for the sternocleidomastoid muscle, which, unilaterally, draws the head toward the ipsilateral shoulder and rotates head to the opposite side and, bilaterally, flexes the neck.
question
Fetal vertebrae develop through endochondral ossification from a preexisting __________ model. Fracture repair of these same bones involves the formation of __________ callus.
dense regular connective tissue; a hyaline cartilage
areolar connective tissue; an elastic cartilage
dense irregular connective tissue; a fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage; a fibrocartilage
answer
hyaline cartilage; a fibrocartilage
question
Which of the following is the only bone that normally moves in relation to the others?
FIGURE 7
A
B
C
D
answer
D
The bone at D forms a joint with the temporal bone (temporomandibular joint) that allows the mouth to open, close, and move laterally.
question
Which of the designated bones articulates with both the vomer and the nasal bones?
FIGURE 7
A
B
C
D
answer
C
The maxilla articulates with both the nasal bone and the vomer.
question
Which of the following pairings of letter to bone is INCORRECT?
FIGURE 7
A; parietal
B; zygomatic
C; maxillary
D; mandibular
answer
A; parietal
The letter A indicates the frontal bone, not the parietal.
question
Name the foramen at letter C.
FIGURE 8
foramen lacerum
jugular foramen
foramen magnum
foramen ovale
answer
foramen magnum
The foramen magnum ("great hole") is the largest foramen in the skull and provides passage for the spinal cord.
question
Which of the following bones are indicated by letters A, B, and D (in order)?
FIGURE 8
maxilla, temporal, and occipital
maxilla, zygomatic, and occipital
vomer, parietal, and sphenoid
maxilla, occipital, and sphenoid
answer
maxilla, temporal, and occipital
You are getting very adept with skull bones!
question
Identify the bone(s) that form(s) the majority of the hard palate and a keystone bone of the face.
FIGURE 8
A
B
C
D
answer
A
These bones, along with the palatine bones, form the hard palate.
question
Name the highlighted bone(s).
FIGURE 9
zygomatic bones
mandible, or mandibular bone
maxillary bones, or maxillae
temporal bones
answer
mandible, or mandibular bone
This bone forms the lower jaw and contains half of your teeth.
question
The highlighted bone articulates with which other bone(s) of the skull?
FIGURE 9
zygomatic bones
ethmoid bone
temporal bone
maxillary bones, or maxillae
answer
temporal bone
The temporal bone bears a mandibular fossa that articulates with the condylar process of the mandible.
question
Which of these important processes is found on the highlighted bone?
FIGURE 9
coronoid process
coracoid process
mastoid process
zygomatic process
answer
coronoid process
This process, located anterior to the condylar process across the mandibular notch, is the insertion for the temporalis muscle, which is important in moving the jaw and chewing.
question
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the parietal bones?
The four largest sutures occur where the parietal bones join to other bones.
They form the bulk of the cranial vault.
They form the base of the skull.
They are paired.
answer
They form the base of the skull.
The base of the cranium (skull) is formed by the occipital bone (not the parietal bones).
question
Which of the following bones does NOT fit with the other listed bones?
the sphenoid
the frontal bone
the maxilla
the occipital bone
answer
the maxilla
The maxilla is the only listed bone that is not part of the cranium. Instead, it is a facial bone.
question
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the orbit?
the maxilla
the frontal bone
the zygomatic bone
the temporal bone
answer
the temporal bone
The temporal bone is lateral and too far posterior to contribute to the orbit.
question
Which of the following bones do NOT contain a paired paranasal sinus?
the frontal bones
the ethmoid bones
the sphenoid bones
the zygomatic bones
answer
the zygomatic bones
The zygomatic bones do not have paranasal sinuses.
question
Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
the zygomatic bone
the vomer bone
the nasal bone
the sphenoid bone
the maxilla
answer
the sphenoid bone
The sphenoid bone is a cranial bone.
question
Most facial bones articulate with the __________.
maxillary bones
mandible
nasal bones
vomer
answer
maxillary bones
The maxillary bones (maxillae) are considered the keystone bones of the facial skeleton. They form the central part of the facial skeleton, articulating with all facial bones except the mandible.
question
The vomer and ethmoid bones form part of the __________.
lateral walls of the nasal cavity
orbits
lacrimal fossa
nasal septum
answer
nasal septum
The vomer and ethmoid bones form the bony parts of the nasal septum. The vomer forms the inferior portion of the septum. The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone forms the superior portion of the septum.
question
Which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton?
bones of the face
bones of the lower limbs
bones of the pelvic girdle
bones of the pectoral girdles
answer
bones of the face
The facial bones are part of the axial skeleton.
question
Which bone or pair of bones forms the superior portion of the cranium?
the frontal bone
the temporal bones
the parietal bones
the occipital bone
answer
the parietal bones
The parietal bones form the superior-most portion of the cranium.
question
The __________ is the only bone in the body that does NOT directly articulate with any other bone.
vomer
clavicle
temporal bone
hyoid bone
answer
hyoid bone
The hyoid bone does not articulate directly with any other bone. Instead, it is anchored by the stylohyoid ligaments to the styloid process of the temporal bones.
question
During late pregnancy, women may exhibit temporary lordosis. This is advantageous because temporary lordosis _________.
makes it easier for a woman to sit down with less muscular effort
makes it easier for a woman to stand up with less muscular effort
makes it easier for a woman to maintain her balance
makes it easier for a woman to give birth while lying on her back
answer
makes it easier for a women to maintain her balance
Balance is maintained much more easily when body weight is distributed evenly across the anterior and posterior regions of the pelvis.
question
If a herniated disc in the lumbar region is treated by surgically removing the intervertebral disc and doing a bone graft between the adjoining vertebrae, one of the consequences might be _________.
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
gradual growth of a replacement intervertebral disc in the space between the vertebrae
increased shock absorbance qualities in the intervertebral discs located immediately above and below the graft in order to compensate for the removal of the herniated disc
All of the listed responses are correct.
answer
reduced flexibility of the spine in the lower back
The intervertebral disc and space that it occupies provides room for vertebral bodies of adjacent vertebrae to flex and extend the vertebral column (spine).
question
Which letter represents the cervical curvature?
FIGURE 10
A
B
C
D
answer
A
The cervical curvature includes the first seven vertebrae and is posteriorly concave.
question
Which of these curvatures on the spine are NOT present at birth but develop later?
FIGURE 10
A and B
A and C
B and C
B and D
answer
A and C
The entire spine is posteriorly convex at birth. The cervical and lumbar areas develop their posteriorly concave shape later.
question
Pregnant women may experience an exaggerated lordosis, or swayback. Which curvature is affected during pregnancy?
FIGURE 10
A
B
C
D
answer
C
A diagnosis of lordosis (know as hyperlordosis when it becomes excessive) is based on an exaggerated lumbar curvature.
question
What part of this vertebra is indicated by the letter B?
FIGURE 11
spinous process
transverse process
body
pedicle
answer
transverse process
Two transverse processes project laterally from each vertebral arch.
question
Name the bone feature identified by the letter D.
FIGURE 11
vertebral foramen
foramen magnum
intervertebral foramen
transverse foramen
answer
vertebral foramen
The vertebral foramen, framed by the vertebral arch and the body, allows passage of the spinal cord.
question
To what region of the vertebral column does this vertebra belong?
FIGURE 11
sacral
lumbar
thoracic
cervical
answer
thoracic
Thoracic vertebrae can be identified by the facets on the transverse process and the facets or demifacets on the body used to articulate with ribs.
question
Which of the following structures is common only to the cervical, thoracic, or lumbar vertebrae?
transverse processes
rib facets
spinous processes
pedicles
superior articulating surfaces
answer
rib facets
Rib facets are only found on thoracic vertebrae.
question
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes
lumbar vertebrae; bifid spinous processes
cervical vertebrae; rib facets
thoracic vertebrae; triangular vertebral foramen
thoracic vertebrae; transverse foramen
answer
lumbar vertebrae; short, flat spinous processes
The lumbar vertebrae have large, flattened spinous processes as a result of being attached to the large muscles in the back.
question
How many lumbar vertebrae are there in a typical adult skeleton?
4
5
7
12
answer
5
A typical adult skeleton has 5 lumbar vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, and 7 cervical vertebrae.
question
Which of the following is correctly matched?
kyphosis; accentuated lumbar curvature
lordosis; rupture of the anulus fibrosus
scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature
herniated disc; dorsally exaggerated thoracic curvature
answer
scoliosis; abnormal lateral curvature
Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature that occurs most often in the thoracic region of the vertebral column.
question
Which vertebrae would you expect to have the largest body, relative to the other regions?
lumbar
cervical
thoracic
sacral
answer
lumbar
The lumbar vertebrae have the largest bodies.
question
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), it is important to place the compression hands over the sternal body but not over the xiphoid process so that _________.
only the sternal body is compressed while the other two regions of the sternum are not moved at all during the procedure
there is little risk of physically damaging the heart
the xiphoid process is allowed to continue protecting the underlying stomach
the xiphoid process is permitted to help the lungs inflate with air
answer
there is little risk of physically damaging the heart
During CPR the heart is compressed between the sternum and spine. When done properly, the heart never comes into direct contact with any bony prominence that could cause severe cardiac trauma.
question
Why is the rib at B considered a true rib?
FIGURE 12
It possesses a costal groove.
It is capable of movement during the action of breathing.
It encloses the thoracic cavity and protects the vital organs within.
It passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage.
answer
It passes from the vertebral column to the sternum via its own costal cartilage.
True, or vertebrosternal, ribs make a complete circuit around the thoracic cage in a ring that includes their own costal cartilage.
question
What is the most specific term you could apply to the rib at D?
FIGURE 12
false rib
true rib
floating rib
answer
floating rib
This is a floating rib because it does not articulate with a costal cartilage and instead terminates in the body wall.
question
What portion of the sternum is identified by the letter A?
FIGURE 12
xiphoid process
manubrium
body
sternal angle
answer
manubrium
The manubrium is the superior portion of the sternum.
question
Which of the following bones does NOT fit with the other listed bones?
the true ribs
the vertebrae
the sternum
the clavicle
answer
the clavicle
The clavicle of part of the appendicular skeleton, while the vertebrae, sternum, and ribs are part of the axial skeleton.
question
Each of the 12 ribs articulates with one vertebrae. Is this statement true or false?
True
False
answer
False
Each rib articulates with two separate vertebrae. The tubercle of the rib articulates with the rib facet of a thoracic vertebra on the transverse process. The head of the rib articulates with the bodies of two separate vertebrae.
question
Which of the following is a bony articulation for the scapula?
the acromion
the suprascapular notch
the coracoid process
subscapular fossa
answer
the acromion
Yes, the acromion forms a joint with the clavicle.
question
Because of its large bony connection to the thoracic bones, the pectoral girdle is very stable. Is this statement true or false?
True
False
answer
False
The only bony connection between the pectoral girdle and the thoracic bones is the clavicle. This makes the pectoral girdle very mobile but not very strong.
question
Which of the following bones is NOT part of pectoral girdle?
the clavicle
the scapula
the humerus
answer
the humerus
The humerus is part of the upper limb.
question
Since a Colles' fracture can occur when a falling person attempts to break the fall with outstretched hands, an X ray will typically show that, at the site of the fracture, the hand is displaced in a ____________ direction.
lateral
medial
dorsal
ventral
answer
dorsal
Dorsal refers to an object facing backward or directed toward the back.
question
People who work at computer keyboards all day repeatedly flex their wrists and fingers and therefore become susceptible to carpal tunnel syndrome, a condition in which inflammation of tissue causes tingling and pain. Which one of the following treatments will be least likely to reduce the pain?
local injection of an anti-inflammatory medication
squeezing tennis balls in both hands in order to strengthen the wrist and finger muscles
wearing wrist splints to immobilize the wrists
surgery to relieve the pressure on the nerve that transmits the pain signals
answer
squeezing tennis balls in both hands in order to strengthen the wrist and finder muscles
This action is exactly the same as what causes the initial condition.
question
Which of the following features of the humerus is NOT designated by a letter label?
FIGURE 13
medial epicondyle
greater tubercle
trochlea
capitulum
answer
medial epicondyle
The medial epicondyle is located on the distal humerus on the side toward the body (in anatomical position).
question
The feature at letter C articulates with which bone?
FIGURE 13
radius
ulna
clavicle
scapula
answer
scapula
The head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity.
question
What part of this bone articulates with the ulna?
FIGURE 13
A
B
C
D
answer
D
The feature at D forms the primary contact with the ulna in the elbow joint. Processes from the ulna enter the olecranon and coronoid fossae during elbow flexion and extension.
question
Which of the following is a bone marking of the humerus?
radial tuberosity
radial notch
styloid process
deltoid tuberosity
answer
deltoid tuberosity
The deltoid tuberosity is a marking of the humerus. It is a roughened site where attachment to the deltoid muscle of the shoulder occurs.
question
Which of the following statements is true?
The scapula marks the origin of the appendicular skeleton.
The radius is the lateral bone in the forearm.
The humerus is the most proximal bone in the upper appendicular skeleton.
The phalanges in the thumb are the most medial bones in the hand.
answer
The radius is the lateral bone in the forearm.
In the anatomical position, the radius would be supinated into the lateral position.
question
Which forearm bone(s) contribute(s) most heavily to the elbow joint?
the carpal bones
the humerus
the radius
the ulna
answer
the ulna
The olecranon articulates and moves across the humerus to form the elbow joint.
question
When you hit your elbow and say that you hit your "funny bone," you have actually hit a nerve that runs across the bone surface. Over which bone can this nerve be found?
pisiform
radius
humerus
ulna
answer
humerus
The ulnar nerve, which runs behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus at its distal end (at the elbow), is responsible for the painful, tingling sensation you experience when you hit your "funny bone" (associate humerus with humorous).
question
What feature is indicated by the letter A?
FIGURE 14
ischial tuberosity
pubic ramus
auricular surface
iliac fossa
answer
iliac fossa
The ilium is a large, flaring bone that forms the superior region of a coxal bone. It presents the large iliac fossa as a depression in the anterior surface.
question
Only one component bone of the right coxal bone articulates with this same bone component on the other side of the body. Which of the following bone components fits this description?
FIGURE 14
ischium
ilium
pubis
answer
pubis
The right pubis articulates with the left pubis via a fibrocartilage joint called the pubic symphysis.
question
On which bone is the greater sciatic notch located?
FIGURE 14
A
B
C
answer
A
The greater sciatic notch is located along the posterior border of the ilium between the posterior inferior iliac spine and the ischial spine.
question
Why would the male pelvis exhibit more prominent (pronounced) bone markings than the female pelvis?
more dietary calcium
larger leg muscles
longer gait (stride)
taller physical stature
answer
larger leg muscles
question
During pregnancy and delivery, a hormone called relaxin is secreted to "relax" (soften) the pelvic ligaments and cervix. What pelvic girdle region would be a good target for this hormone to help open up the anterior pelvis during the birthing process?
pubis
ischium
sacrum
ilium
answer
pubis
question
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
The pubic arch is broader in the pelvis of a female than in the pelvis of a male.
The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male.
The female pelvis is thinner than that of a male.
The female pelvis is tilted further forward than the male pelvis.
answer
The pelvic outlet is narrower in a female than in a male.
The pelvic outlet is narrower in a male than in a female. The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower, and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker, heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
question
How are the male and female pelvises different?
The female pelvis has thicker bones with more prominent bone markings.
The acetabula are larger and closer together in the female.
The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.
The male pelvis is usually wider, shallower, and lighter.
answer
The pelvic inlet is heart-shaped in the male.
The female pelvis is modified for childbearing; it is wider, shallower, and lighter than the male pelvis. The male pelvis has thicker/heavier bones with more prominent bone markings, acetabula that are larger and closer together, and a narrower, heart-shaped pelvic inlet.
question
A Pott's fracture could result in damage to all of the following except ____________.
lateral malleolus
fibular notch
inferior tibiofibular joint
tibial condyle
answer
tibial condyle
The tibial condyles (medial and lateral) are two flat, oval-shaped articular surfaces found at the proximal end of the bone.
question
Which of the following persons is the least likely to develop "flat feet" as an adult?
an Olympic sprinter
an Olympic marathon runner
a soldier assigned to prolonged guard duty
an Olympic weight-lifter
answer
an Olympic sprinter
Sprinting puts only short-duration stress on the arch of the foot.
question
Which letter represents the lateral epicondyle?
FIGURE 15
A
B
C
D
answer
B
The lateral and medial epicondyles are located at the distal end of the femur.
question
What part of the femur articulates with the patella?
FIGURE 15
A
B
C
D
answer
D
The patellar surface allows the patella to glide as the knee joint flexes and extends.
question
What is the bone feature at A?
FIGURE 15
greater trochanter
fovea capitis
lesser trochanter
linea aspera
answer
greater trochanter
The greater trochanter is separated from the lesser trochanter anteriorly by the intertrochanteric line and posteriorly by the intertrochanteric crest.
question
Identify the group of bones known as the phalanges.
FIGURE 16
A
B
C
D
answer
A
Both the hand and the foot contain 15 phalangeal bones that form the fingers and the toes.
question
Which of these bones aligns with the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms to form the four distal tarsals?
FIGURE 16
talus
cuboid
navicular
calcaneus
answer
cuboid
The cuboid is the most lateral bone in the row of distal tarsal bones.
question
Which of the following areas/bones would absorb the impact of walking when a foot first touches the ground during a normal stride?
FIGURE 16
A
B
C
D
answer
D
The calcaneus is the heel bone. The calcaneus belongs to the tarsus of the foot and strikes the ground first during a normal walking stride.
question
A fracture of which structure is commonly referred to as "breaking your hip"?
the neck of the femur
the ischium
the head of the femur
the acetabulum
answer
the neck of the femur
The neck of the femur is at risk because of the large percentage of spongy bone in the neck.
question
Which of the following statements is true?
The tibia is the lateral bone in the lower leg.
The fibula is the weight-bearing bone in the lower leg.
The tibia and fibula articulate with the calcaneus at the ankle.
The ilium is the most proximal bone in the lower appendicular skeleton.
answer
The ilium is the most proximal bone in the lower appendicular skeleton.
The ilium directly articulates with the sacrum.
question
The arch that runs front to back on the inside of the foot is the __________.
oblique arch
transverse arch
lateral longitudinal arch
medial longitudinal arch
answer
medial longitudinal arch
The medial longitudinal arch runs longitudinally along one side, the medial side, of the foot.
question
Old age affects many parts of the skeleton. Which of the following is NOT associated with old age?
The mandible continues to grow and thicken.
The thoracic cage becomes more rigid as costal cartilages ossify.
The vertebrae become more porous and likely to fracture.
The intervertebral discs become thinner and less elastic.
answer
The mandible continues to grow and thicken.
The opposite is true; as the bony tissue of the jaws declines, the jaws (including the mandible) look small and childlike once again.
question
Which is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body?
the fibula
the femur
the os coxae
the tibia
answer
the femur
The femur is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the body. Its durable structure reflects the stress exerted on the femur as it bears the weight of the body when standing, walking, or running.
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