A&P CH 8

1. This is the anterior bone that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum at the sternoclavicular joint. A) Scapula B) Clavicle C) Xiphoid D) Rib E) Thoracic vertebra

2. This bone has an S-shape that includes the medial half of the bone being convex anteriorly and the lateral half being concave anteriorly. A) Sternum B) Scapula C) Humerus D) Clavicle E) Ileum

3. Which of the following bones articulates with the scapula? A) Thoracic vertebra B) Humerus C) Sacrum D) Tibia E) Sternum

4. This part of the clavicle is rounded and articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. A) Acromial extremity B) Conoid tubercle C) Sternal end D) Costal tuberosity E) Xiphoid process

5. The following is a bone marking on the clavicle that serves as an attachment site. A) Conical tuberosity B) Acromion process C) Costal fovea D) Deltoid tuberosity E) Impression for the costoclavicular ligament

6. Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone? A) Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs B) Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint C) Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle D) Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus E) Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula

11. Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the levels of second and seventh vertebrae? A) Sternum B) Clavicle C) Pelvis D) Scapula E) Sacrum

12. Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? A) Ileum B) Thoracic vertebra C) Sternum D) Clavicle E) Humerus

13. This is the thick edge of the scapula that is closer to the arm. A) Axillary border B) Medial border C) Infraspinous fossa D) Coracoid process E) Acromion

14. Which of the following bone markings is located in the most superior position on the scapula? A) Infraspinous fossa B) Supraspinous fossa C) Acromion D) Subscapular fossa E) Scapular notch

15. Which of the following bone markings are found on the anterior surface of the scapula? A) Infraspinous fossa B) Supraspinous fossa C) Subscapular fossa D) Both infraspinous fossa and supraspinous fossa E) None of these choices are correct.

16. What is the scapular notch used for? A) Ligament attachment B) Tendon attachment C) Passageway for suprascapular nerve D) Both ligament and tendon attachment E) None of these choices are correct

17. Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head of the humerus fits? A) Coracoid process B) Glenoid cavity C) Acromion D) Scapular notch E) Supraspinous fossa

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand? A) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges. B) There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges C) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges D) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges E) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges

19. The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of the A) humerus, radius and ulna. B) humerus and radius. C) humerus and clavicle. D) humerus and ulna. E) humerus and scapula

20. The epiphyseal line on the proximal end of the humerus is found in the A) anatomical neck. B) greater tubercle. C) intertubercular sulcus. D) surgical neck. E) olecranon fossa.

21. The lesser tubercle of the humerus A) articulates with the ulna. B) articulates with the radius. C) is found on the lateral side of the olecranon fossa. D) projects anteriorly. E) is proximal to the glenohumeral joint.

22. The deltoid tuberosity of the humerus is found A) on the distal end. B) on the proximal end. C) along the middle region of the shaft. D) at the epiphyseal plate. E) in the surgical neck.

23. The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the A) radius. B) ulna. C) scapula. D) carpal bones. E) clavicle.

24. The ________ is found on the proximal end of the humerus. A) capitulum B) radial fossa C) trochlea D) ulna tuberosity E) intertubercular sulcus

25. This is a spool-shaped process on distal end of the humerus that is found medial to the capitulum and articulates with the ulna. A) Coronoid fossa B) Trochlea C) Medial epicondyle D) Lateral epicondyle E) Lesser tubercle

26. The medial and lateral epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used for A) formation of the elbow joint. B) tendon attachment. C) passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone into the marrow cavity. D) Both formation of the elbow joint and tendon attachment. E) All of these choices are correct.

27. Which of the following bones is the longest? A) Radius B) Phalange C) Clavicle D) Ulna E) Scaphoid

28. Which of the following structures is found in the elbow? A) Acromion B) Surgical neck C) Olecranon D) Lesser tubercle E) Both acromion and olecranon

29. Which of the following structures on the ulna receives the trochlea of the humerus? A) Olecranon fossa B) Coronoid process C) Trochlear notch D) Radial notch E) Capitulum

30. Which notch is found between the olecranon and coronoid process? A) Ulnar notch B) Radial notch C) Olecranal notch D) Trochlear notch E) Epicondyle notch

31. Where does the biceps brachii muscle attach to the ulna? A) Radial tuberosity B) Styloid process C) Ulnar tuberosity D) Coronoid process E) Olecranon

32. The ulna and radius connect with each other at how many sites? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

33. What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius? A) Joins the shafts of two bones B) Tendon attachment C) Site of bone repair D) Both site of tendon attachment and bone repair E) None of these choices are correct.

34. This depression on the ulna is found lateral and inferior to the trochlear notch. A) Radial notch B) Elbow notch C) Proximal radioulnar joint D) Ulnar notch E) Styloid process

35. The distal end of the radius articulates with how many bones of the wrist? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

36. The carpal bones of the wrist are arranged A) in 2 transverse rows of 5 bones. B) in 3 transverse rows of bones. C) in 2 transverse rows of 4 bones. D) in 2 parallel rows of 4 bones. E) randomly.

37. Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface? A) Lunate B) Scaphoid C) Triquetrum D) Hamate E) Pisiform

38. What is included in the carpal tunnel? A) Pisiform B) Trapezium C) Flexor retinaculum D) Both pisiform and trapezium. E) All of these choices are correct

39. The carpometacarpal joint consists of the A) base of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. B) base of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. C) head of metacarpal bones and distal row of carpal bones. D) head of metacarpal bones and proximal row of carpal bones. E) None of these choices are correct.

40. How many phalanges are in each hand? A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16 E) 20

41. The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the A) pubic symphysis. B) sacroiliac joint. C) hip. D) acetabulum. E) None of these choices are correct.

42. What is the function of the pelvic girdle? A) Support for vertebral column B) Attachment site for lower limbs C) Attachment site for large pectoral muscles. D) Attachment site for lower limbs and for large pectoral muscles. E) All of these choices are correct.

43. In the standard anatomical position, the _____ is the bone of the pelvis found the most superior. A) Ilium B) Pubis C) Ischium D) Both ilium and ishium. E) All of these choices are correct.

44. The auricular surface of the ilium A) forms part of the acetabulum. B) is a point of attachment for tendons of the iliacus muscles. C) articulates with the sacrum. D) is a point of attachment for the gluteal muscles. E) articulates with the sternum.

45. This is the largest foramen in the human skeleton. A) Acetabulum B) Obturator foramen C) Vertebral foramen D) Mental foramen E) Foramen magnum

46. This projection extends superiorly and laterally along the superior ramus of the pubis eventually merging with the arcuate line of the ilium. A) Pectineal line B) Ischial tuberosity C) Anterior gluteal line D) Inferior gluteal line E) Greater sciatic notch

47. The hip joint is the joint found between A) the femur and tibia. B) the pelvis and sacrum. C) the pelvis and tibia. D) the femur and patella. E) the pelvis and femur.

48. The portion of the bony pelvis that is found inferior to the pelvic brim is called A) the false pelvis. B) the greater pelvis. C) the true pelvis. D) both the false pelvis and the greater pelvis. E) all of these choices are correct

49. The pelvic inlet A) is the superior opening of the true pelvis. B) is the inferior opening of the true pelvis. C) begins posteriorly at the sacral promontory. D) is the superior opening of the true pelvis and begins posteriorly at the sacral promontory. E) All of these choices are correct.

50. In comparison to the male pelvis, the female pelvis is NOT A) wider. B) shallower. C) larger in the pelvic inlet. D) larger in the pelvic outlet. E) larger in the acetabulum.

51. Each lower limb has A) 30 bones found in 3 locations. B) 30 bones found in 4 locations. C) 32 bones found in 3 locations. D) 32 bones found in 4 locations. E) 34 bones found in 4 locations.

52. The shaft of the femur angles A) medially. B) laterally. C) anteriorly. D) posteriorly. E) cranially.

53. Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles? A) Gluteal tuberosity B) Linea aspera C) Medial epicondyle D) Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera E) Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle

54. Which of the following markings is located on the medial side of the femur? A) Lesser trochanter B) Greater trochanter C) Gluteal tuberosity D) Lateral epicondyle E) Linea aspera

55. This is a bone that develops in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle and protects the knee joint. A) Ischium B) Ilium C) Pubis D) Patella E) Femur

56. The medial and lateral condyles of the femur fit into what part of the patella? A) Articular facets B) Base of the patella C) Tibiofemoral crest D) Apex of the patella E) None of these choices are correct

57. Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint? A) Lateral condyle of the femur B) Medial condyle of the femur C) Lateral malleolus of the fibula D) Condyles of the tibia E) Patella

58. The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the A) anterior border (crest) of the tibia. B) tibial tuberosity. C) medial condyle of the tibia. D) tibiofemoral joint. E) intercondylar eminence.

59. The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone? A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Talus D) Metatarsals E) Femur

60. Which of following bones is NOT a tarsal bone? A) Talus B) Calcaneus C) Navicular D) Cuneiform E) Capitate

61. Which of the followings structures is not found in the foot? A) Pollex B) Hallux C) Talus D) Longitudinal arch E) Transverse arch

104. Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis

105. Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.

Name the bones that are included in each upper limb

128. This is a common condition experienced by runners, which is caused by the kneecap tracking laterally as well as inferiorly and superiorly. A) Patellofemoral stress syndrome B) Metatarsal microfracture C) Bunions D) Hallux valgus E) Plantar fasciitis

129. Which of the following often occurs in dancers due to losing balance while standing on their toes? A) Patellofemoral stress syndrome B) Fractures of the metatarsals C) Flatfoot D) Clawfoot E) Clubfoot

130. Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is abnormally elevated? A) Patellofemoral stress syndrome B) Bunions C) Flatfoot D) Clawfoot E) Clubfoot

131. Which of the following is a condition where the medial longitudinal arch of the foot is decreased, resulting in fallen arches? A) Patellofemoral stress syndrome B) Bunions C) Flatfoot D) Clawfoot E) Clubfoot

132. Which of the following is a condition where the foot is twisted inferiorly and medially, and the angle of the arch is increased? A) Patellofemoral stress syndrome B) Bunions C) Flatfoot D) Clawfoot E) Clubfoot

133. During embryonic and fetal develop, most skeletal tissues arise from A) the neurocranium. B) the notochord. C) mesenchymal cells. D) endoderm. E) none of these choices are correct.

134. The skull begins to develop during the _____ week after fertilization. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) fifth

135. During the _____ week after fertilization, the limb buds develop as small elevations at the sides of the trunk. A) second B) third C) fourth D) fifth E) sixth

136. The bones of the face are derived from A) the cartilaginous neurocranium. B) the membranous neurocranium. C) mesoderm. D) the membranous viscerocranium. E) endoderm.

137. The ear bone and the hyoid bone are derived from the A) cartilaginous neurocranium B) membranous neurocranium C) cartilaginous viscerocranium D) membranous viscerocranium E) endoderm

138. The neurocranium gives rise to bones of the A) upper limbs B) lower limbs C) face D) ribcage E) skull

139. The viscerocranium gives rise to bones of the A) upper limbs. B) lower limbs. C) face. D) ribcage. E) skull

141. The boundary between the true pelvis and the false pelvis is the A) pelvic axis. B) pubic symphysis. C) pelvic outlet. D) pelvic brim. E) pectineal line.

142. The route taken by the baby's head during childbirth follows the ______ as it travels through the pelvis. A) pelvic axis B) plane of the pelvic outlet C) pelvic brim D) sacral promontory E) pectineal line

143. Which of the following is NOT a way that the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis? A) Provides support and protection for internal organs. B) Stores and releases sodium ions. C) Houses blood forming tissue. D) Protects the brain and spinal cord. E) Serves as attachment and leverage points for muscles.