Microbiology Final Exam

25 July 2022
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question
Why study microbiology
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microbes have profound impact on our lives and health
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Most microorganisms are harmful
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False
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The leading cause of death resulting from infectious disease is
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acute respiratory infection
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Which of the following has been a major factor leading to emerging disease
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all of the above
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_________ has returned to the ranks of leading causes of death as a "re-emerging" disease becuase of increasing drug resistance
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Tuberculosis
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Which of the following is a disease caused by a new human pathogen
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SARS
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Which of the following has been used as a biological weapon
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anthrax and smallpox
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Who developed the first true vaccine
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E. Jenner
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Aseptic surgical practices were introduced by
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J lister
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Who among the following first detected the existence of noncellular infectious agents, which are now known as viruses
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L. Pasteur
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The use of microorganisms to clean up toxic spills known as
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Bioremediation
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Which of the following first proposed that health care workers should wash their hands before coming into contact with their patients
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I. Semmelweis
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The process for determining the etiologic agent of an infectious disease was developed by___________, and used to identify the bacteria caused by anthrax
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R. Koch
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Mycology is the study of
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Fungi
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The study of the body's defenses against invading microbes is called
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immunology
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Which of the following cellular structures is not found in all organisms
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Cell wall
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Which of the following organisms are prokaryotes
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Bacteria
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Which of the following infectious agents is not an organism
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Virus
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The genetic material of prokaryotes is
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a single circular chromosome
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Bacterial cell walls are composed of
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peptidoglycan
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Human tapeworms are best measured in
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meters
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The genetic material of eukaryotes is found in the _________ of the cell
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nucleus
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The organelle involved in both digestion and apoptosis is the
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lysosome
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Which of the following is best described as an infectious protein
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prions
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The primary function of the ________________ is production of the short-term energy storage molecule ATP
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mitcohondrion
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The first antibiotic discovered kills bacteria but does not harm people. This is an example of
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selective toxicity
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Yeasts are members of the
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Mycetae
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The scientific name of an organism is the
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genus and species
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Which version of binomial nomenclature form is correct
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Escherichia coli
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The microscopes used in AC microbiology laboratory are__________________
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compound bright-field microscopes
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In microbiology growth usually means
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an increase in the number of microbial cells
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Proteins that catalyze the reactions of metabolism are called
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enzymes
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Organisms which obtain their carbon and energy from organic sources of carbon are called
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chemoheterotrophs
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Dehydration synthesis reactions are a common type of _____________ reaction
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anabolic
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In Dr. Dolby's class organic means grown without the use of chemicals
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False
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An organism described as fastidous
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has extensive nutrient requirements
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All living things require nitrogen
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True
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Which of the following statements are true of anabolic metabolism
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it results in the formation of biomolecules
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Which of the following is a feature that eukaryotes have but prokaryotes lack
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nucleus
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the agent that causes mad cow disease is a newly recognized type of agent of infectious disease known as
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prions
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Chemoautotroph
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uses inorganic chemicals to fuel its metabolism
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Photautotroph
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uses inorganic sources of carbon and light energy
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Facultative anaerobe
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can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
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Halophile
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grows best in high salt concentrations
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Microaerophile
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can only grow in low oxygen conditions
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Some archea of thermophiles, which means they thrive under _________________
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high temperature
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A few prokaryotes are capable of fixing nitrogen which means they
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convert nitrogen gas to organic nitrogen
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The first use of microbes as weapons in North america occured in 2001 when anthrax was sent throughtthe mail to several polititiacans
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False
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Which of the listed taxonimic ranks is the larges, containing the greatest number of different kinds of organisms
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Domain
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Which of the following is produced by the activity of microorganisms
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All
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Sexual reproduction involves meiosis.
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True
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Which of the following organisms is beneficial? A) Lactobacillus B) Streptomyces C) Cyanobacteria D) Cephalosporium niveum
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All of the above
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The cellular process that results in two nuclei containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus is known as:
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mitosis
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Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is an identification method which detects the __ of an organism.
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genetic sequences
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Which of the following is a segmented flatworm? A) Nematoda B) Cestoda C) Trematoda
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cestoda
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A worm that fertilizes it's own ova is called:
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monoecious
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Infection with parasitic worms is usually diagnosed based on:
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microscopic observation of eggs and larva
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Humans generally get infected with tapeworms by:
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eating an intermediate host
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A scientist discovers a new worm which is flat and has a larval stage which inhabits fresh water snails. This worm is probably a
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a trematode
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An intermediate host is one in which the __ stage of a worm lives.
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larva
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The part of an adult tapeworm that attaches to the intestine is known as
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a scolex
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Which of the following has a complete digestive system
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a nematoda
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The most common helminth parasite in the U.S. is the
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the pinworm
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Which fungal group reproduce by asexual means ONLY
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deuteromycetes
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Systemic mycoses are usually acquired by
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inhalation
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A fungus described as "dimorphic" is
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multicellular in the environement and single celled in the body
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Asexual reproduction in multicelluar Ascomycota results in the production of
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conidiospores
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Which of the following is/are used in the production of foods and/or beverages
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Aspergillus flavus
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Disease caused by fungus is called
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both mycosis and mycotoxosis
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The term ___ refers to a multicellular fungus.
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mycelium
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A fungus described as a saprobe is one that
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feeds on dead organic material
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the zygote formed by the fusion of the hyphae of two Rhizopus fungi is haploid.
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false
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Single celled fungus reproduce asexually by a process called
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budding
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Protozoal parasites that commonly have complex life cycles are usually members of the
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Apicomplexa
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Protozoal parasites that commonly have complex life cycles are usually members of the
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apicomplexans/sporozoa
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A protozoan passed in the feces as cysts is
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Giardia Intestinalis
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The _____ is the actively feeding and reproducing stage of a protozoan.
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trophozoite
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Protozoa which are non-motile are members of the
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Apicomplexa
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Which of the following is member of the Flagellates/Mastigophora
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Diplomonadida
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Protozoa that are intracellular parasites are members of the
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apicomplexans
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All protozoa reproduce sexually as well as asexually.
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False
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Bacteria with a thin peptidoglycan wall and an outer lipid membrane are Gram-positive
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False
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Which of the following diagnostic tests detects the presence of a bacterial virulence factor
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antibiotic sensitivity factor
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The Gram stain distinguishes between differences in the ___ of bacteria
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cell wall
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The bacterial toxin produced by __ can be used to treat various disorders involving muscle spasms
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clostridium botulinum
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Pleomorphic bacteria
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vary in shape and size
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A structure of a bacterial cell that prevents white blood cells from attacking it is a/an
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antiphagocytic factor
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Microscopic characteristics used to identify bacteria could also be called ___ characteristics
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Cellular
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Members of the Enterobacteriaceae which do not ferment lactose are called
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non-coliforms
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Production of a clear (colorless) zone around colonies on blood agar plates is called __ hemolysis
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beta
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In the lab you place a sample of bacteria in medium containing only sucrose as a carbon source, and incubate it to determine if the bacteria can grow on the medium. This is an example of Point
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physiologic testing
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The protein component of a virion is called the
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capsid
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Why do viruses have to infect host cells
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the are dependent on the host for their metabolism
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viral infection which results in the host cell being destroyed upon release of new virions is a __ infection
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lytic
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The large enveloped DNA viruses that commonly establish latent infections are in the __ family
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herpesviridae
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Viruses are known to cause some types of human cancers
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True
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A recurring virus disease is likely the result of a __ virus infection
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latent
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Which of the following is a criterion for classification of viruses into families? A) form of nucleic acid B) type of capsid C) presence of an envelope
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All of these
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How are prions different from all other known infectious agents
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they lack genetic material
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A segmented genome
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has more than one piece of nucleic acid
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Human activities have little impact on the emergence of new diseases
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False
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The cytoplasmic membrane is composed of
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both lipids and proteins
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Which of the following organisms is a prokaryote
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Bacterium
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Which among the following is the largest taxonomic group
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domain
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A key feature which eukaryotes have but prokaryotes lack is
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a nucleus
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Which of the following discovered the first antibiotic
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A Fleming
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things
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motility
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Which among the following infectious diseases is NOT among the leading causes of death worldwide
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SARS
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Which of the following is a function of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane? A) ATP production. B) regulating entry of materials into the cell. C) separation of daughter DNA molecules.
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all of the above
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The study of patterns of disease in communities is known as
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epidemiology
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Fungi are classified into phyla on the basis of
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their mode of sexual reproduction
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Which of the following has no digestive system
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Cestoda
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Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial microscopic morphology
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gram stain reaction
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Protozoa that use pseudopodia for motility are members of the group
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amoeba/sarcodina
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Systemic mycoses are generally NOT transmitted from person to person
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True
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The mature adult stage of a worm may be found in a/an __ host
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definitive
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All protozoa are transmitted as cysts
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False
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Bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and stain Gram-negative (pink).
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False
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Which of the following methods of microbial control is considered bacteriostatic
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Refrigeration
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The infectious agents resistant to nearly all means of sterilization are
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Prions
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Which of the following structures or functions is NOT a target for antibiotics?
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Glycocalyx synthesis
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A respiratory disease is most likely transmitted by the __ route
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airborne
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Which of the following medicines prevent bacterial protein synthesis
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Erythrosynthesis
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A disease in which signs and symptoms develop rapidly and then resolve in a short period of time is a/an __ infection
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Acute
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A zoonosis is a disease that is acquired by
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having been infected by an animal.
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A biological vector is A) a route of transmission. B) usually an insect. C) a reservoir of disease
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all of the above
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An exoenzyme which increases a microbe's ability to invade the body is
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Hyaluronidase
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An intestinal disease is most likely transmitted by the __ route
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fecal-oral
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Infection with a Gram-negative bacterium is considered more serious than infections with Gram-positive bacteria due to
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the lipid a of the outer membrane lps
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A microorganism which is highly virulent may also be referred to as:
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true pathogen
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A disease which spreads throughout the world is a/an __ disease
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pandemic
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A nosocomial disease is one that is acquired by
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a healthcare facility
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Which of the following bacterial structures allows cells to stick to tissues
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glycocalyx
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The microbiota are sometimes opportunistic pathogens
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True
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An exotoxin which results in destruction of white blood cells is
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Leukocidin
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An infection that spreads throughout the body
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systemic
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An objective indicator of disease
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sign
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The symptomatic stage of an infection
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morbidity
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The signs and symptoms characterizing a disease
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syndrome
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An infection that causes no detectable signs or symptoms
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subclinical
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Lasting damage resulting from an infection
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sequeale
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A decline in the number of white blood cells is known as
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leukopenia
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The reservoir for a zoonosis is
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the normal animal host
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The ___ of a disease is its habitat or source
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reservoir
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The period of time between exposure to a microbe and the onset of symptoms is the __ period
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incubation
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Which of the following is considered a symptom of disease
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headache
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A pimple is an example of a/an _____ infection
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local
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A person who sheds pathogens which infect others is considered a
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a carrier
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The ___ of a disease is the total number of cases of that disease in a given period of time
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prevalence
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Which of the following is a sterilizing agent
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ethelyne oxide
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The surface of a table in a food prep area must be sanitized without leaving a chemical residue to contaminate the materials to be prepared on it. Which of the following would be the best choice
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uv light
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Swabbing the skin with alcohol prior to drawing blood is an example of
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antiseptis and degerming
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You are about to have outpatient surgery. Alcohol is a sufficiently effective germicide to use in preparation of the scapel
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False
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A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n
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germicidal agent
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You need to disinfect a room in which someone with norovirus was cared for. Noroviruses are naked capsid viruses. Which of the following disinfectants would be the best choice
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phenolic
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The label of a disinfectant product you are considering buying lists benzyl ammonium as the active ingredient. This means the disinfectant is a/an
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a quat surfafectant
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Dr. Lister used a/an __ to demonstrate the importance of sterilizing surgical instruments
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phenolic
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Pasteurization is used to
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reduce microbial numbers in liquids
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Standard autoclaving conditions are not effective in sterilizing material of
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prions
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Which of the following is an example of degerming
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scrubbing your hands
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Which of the following statements is most accurate about freezing
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Long term freezing about 3 weeks is germicidal
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Radiation (UV or gamma) is an effective microbicidal because it damages
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The RNA and DNA
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Which of the following most effectively reduces microbes on fresh produce while leaving it safe to consume?
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ionizing radiation
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Antibacterial soaps often contain the disinfectant
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triclosan, a phenolic
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Inappropriate antibiotic therapy may result in
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killing of the normal microbiota, and increased antibiotic resistance.
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Which of the following is/are true of selective toxicity
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It takes advantage of structural differences between host and pathogen, It takes advantage of metabolic differences between host and pathogen.
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The only treatment options for viral diseases are treating signs and symptoms because there are no drugs that safely interrupt the virus infection cycle
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False
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Which of the following types of antimicrobial drugs make bacteria more susceptible to osmotic pressure (salt concentration) changes
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Drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis
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Which of the following is an antiviral drug that interferes with events at the end of the HIV infection cycle
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Indinavir
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Among diseases caused by eukaryotic pathogens, the ones most difficult to treat without serious side effects are those involving systemic infections with
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fungi
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Interferon therapy is sometimes an option for treating infections with
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viruses
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The first antibiotic discovered acts on bacteria by
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preventing cell wall synthesis
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A treatment approach unique to the helminths is
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inhibition of muscle function
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Infections with protozoa are very easy to treat with no side-effects
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False
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It is usually inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat influenza because
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it is a disease caused by viruses
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Which of the following is a molecular component of innate immunity
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complement
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The most abundant white blood cells in a blood sample from a healthy individual are
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neutrophils
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The antibody function of "gluing" pathogens together and inhibiting their growth is known as
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agglutination
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Plasma cells produce large quantities of
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antibodies
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Which class of antibody is found primarily in the mucus lining body cavities
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IgA
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The ____ play a key role in initiating the immune response
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macrophages
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The ___ are chemical signals produced by Helper T-cells to communicate with other white blood cells
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interleukins
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Molecules on the surface of cells that the immune system uses to distinguish "self" from foreign are
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MHC molecules
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The highly specific line of defense against invading pathogens is known as
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acquired immunity
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Release inflammatory chemicals
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basophil
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Secrete immunoglobulins
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plasma cells
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Attack and destroy infected cells
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NK Cells
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Engulf and digest bacteria
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Neutrophil
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Display epitopes (antigen pieces) on MHC to lymphocytes
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antigen presenting cell
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Produce interleukins for lymphocyte activation
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Helper T cells
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Specific molecules or parts of microbes that the immune system recognizes as foreign are
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antigens
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The process in which cell self-destruct with their own enzymes is known as
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apoptosis
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Which of the following is a lymphocyte that leaves the bone marrow fully functional
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NK cells
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Histamine release results in
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vasodiliation
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Which of the following is NOT part of innate immunity
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helper T cells
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When infection occurs a variety of cells of innate immunity may respond. Which ones have a role in triggering the innate response and the adaptive immune response
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Macrophages
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The component of sweat and tears which helps prevent bacterial infection by damaging bacterial cell walls
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lysozyme
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Some complement factors become __ and help phagocytes find bacteria
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chemotactic factors
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Which of the following is a protein that prevents microbes from using the body's reserves of iron
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lactoferrin
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The microbiota of the body have no role in protecting the body from infection
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False
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NK cells identify targets to attack by
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incorrect MHC
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Barriers to microbial invasion include all of the following EXCEPT
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lymph nodes
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Natural resistance means the organism lacks the appropriate environment or structures for a pathogen to become established
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TRUE
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Fixed macrophages in the lungs are called
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alveolar macrophages
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Molecules produced during virus infection which help the cells of the body resist and fight virus infection are
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interferons
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Molecules produced during virus infection which help the cells of the body resist and fight virus infection are
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creating holes in cell membranes
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Neutrophils fight pathogens by
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phagocytosis, releasing defensins and producing nets
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Which of the following is NOT true of the process by which B-cells create their unique antibody molecules
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the process is triggered to the exposure of antigens
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The class of antibody first produced by activated B-lymphocytes is
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IgM
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Cells of the acquired immune system that primarily target virus-infected cells are
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Cytotoxic T cells
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Cells of the acquired immune system that primarily target virus-infected cells are
answer
TRUE
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Naive lymphocytes require __ to become "activated" and participate in the fight against infection
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presentation of the epitope and the cytokines at the same time
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The portion of the antibody molecule that can interact with cells of the immune system is
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the constant region of the heavy chain
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Each plasma cell produces a single class of antibody specific for a single epitope
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TRUE
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The ___ are the white blood cells that coordinate the acquired immune response
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Eosinophils
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Which of the following can become a "memory cell"
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both helper T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes
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T-cells (T lymphocytes) mature in the
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thymus
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Antigen presenting cells use ___ to display epitopes (antigens) to lymphocytes
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MHC molecules
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Interleukin (IL) ___ is involved in promoting a cellular (Type 1) immune response
answer
12
question
The antibody function known as ___ inactivates toxins
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neutralization
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Which of the following is a concern about attenuated vaccines
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they can on rare occasion cause the disease they are intended to prevent
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The vaccine for chickenpoxx is an example of a __ vaccine
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attentuated
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Gammaglobulin therapy is used to
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provide short term temporary immunity
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An immunoassay that detects antibodies specific for a particular pathogen is called a direct immunoassay
answer
False
question
The immunodiagnostic assay that makes use of colored metal compounds attached to antibody molecules is known as
answer
a dipstick assay
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Monoclonal antibodies (mouse antibodies of defined specificity) are used in
answer
immunoassays and immunotherapy
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Which of the following is the correct order for the relative abundance of white blood cells, from greatest to least, in a healthy individual
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neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte, eosinophil, basophil
question
Which of the following cells increase in abundance in the blood during a helminth infection
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eosinophil
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The tetanus vaccine (tetanus toxoid) is an example of a ___ vaccine
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extract subunit
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The autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks and damages the pancreas is known as
answer
type 1 diabetes
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Classic systemic lupus erythematosis is characterized by the presence of
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antibodies specific for DNA
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Definitive diagnosis of infection with HIV requires a diagnostic test known as
answer
PCR for HIV RNA
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The syndrome known as AIDS results when
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CD4+ T-cells are depleted
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When IgE antibodies react to ___, the response may lead to the inflammation known as type 1 hypersensitivity
answer
allergens
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Which of the following disorders is the result of cytotoxic T-cell activity
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delayed hypersensitivity
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The hypersensitivity disorder known as hemolytic disease of the newborn is the result of
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maternal IgG antibodies crossing the placenta
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Teenagers are most frequently the victims of skin disease caused by
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Propionibacterium acnes
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Opportunistic infection of puncture wounds by the Gram-positive anaerobic bacillus __ can result in edema, necrosis and gas pockets in the tissues (gas gangrene
answer
Clostridium perfringens
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Infection of the skin with Microsporum results in disease known as
answer
ringworm
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Leshmaniasis is acquired by:
answer
being bitten by a sand fly
question
A man comes into the ER with an intensely painful injury. Upon investigation the staff find that he is running a fever and is nauseous, the infected area is hot to the touch, and the skin and underlying muscle is necrotic. The likely diagnosis is __ due to infection with__.
answer
necrotizing fasciitis, Streptococcus pyogenes
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Painful ulcerating lesions that reappear in the same location on or near the mouth are likely the result of latent infection with
answer
HSV
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A potentially fatal, rapidly progressing bacterial meningitis most commonly seen in young adults is due to infection with
answer
Neissera Meningits
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____ is a diagnostic indicator common to nearly all bacterial meningitis diseases
answer
Cloudy CSF
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Exposure of newborns to a vagina infected with the Gram-positive beta-hemolytic coccus ___ may result in neonatal meningitis
answer
Streptococcus agalacitae
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Which central nervous system infection is transmitted by mosquitoes
answer
West Nile Virus
question
Careless handling of contact lenses may result in ocular infection with
answer
Ancathomeoba
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Exposure to pigeon droppings may result in infection with the monomorphic yeast ___, a member of the Basidiomycota. The infection may spread from the lungs to the brain, especially in immunocompromised persons
answer
Cryptococcous Neoformans
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A 3 month old baby brought into the ER is flaccid and having difficulty breathing. The mother reports the baby is constipated and has not been nursing much. These signs and symptoms are consistent with
answer
Infant Botulism
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Primary infection with ___ results in infectious mononucleosis, but this DNA virus can reactivate later as oral hairy leukoplakia
answer
Epstein-Barr Virus
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The signs and symptoms of septic shock are the result of
answer
LPS Endotoxin
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Infection with ___ results in disease called breakbone fever because of the bone and joint pain it causes
answer
Dengue Virus
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The vector-borne protozoan ____ is an intracellular parasite of the myocardium, leading to an enlarged heart and possibly death from heart failure.
answer
Tryposoma Cruzi
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A rash known as erythema migrans is associated with infection by
answer
Borrelia Burdofelia
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Vaccine-preventable respiratory infections include
answer
both whooping cough and streptococcol pneumonia
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The "common cold" is the result of infection with
answer
rhinovirus and cornavirus
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The Gram-negative true human pathogen coccobacillus ___ poisons the cells of the respiratory tract, leading to spasms of coughing which leave the victim anoxic and fatigued, and may result in death.
answer
bordetella purtusis
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Recurring pandemics of influenza are primarily the result of:
answer
antigentic shift and genetic recombination during co-infection
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Which of the following statements is TRUE of Pneumocystis jiroveci
answer
It is an opportunistic infection of immunocompromised
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Which of the following hepatitis viruses is spread fecal-orally
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Hepatitis A
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Children frequently contract ___ from handling rodent or reptile pets
answer
Samonellosis
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Oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) is caused by
answer
Candida albicans
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The leading cause of viral gastroenteritis in the U.S. is __. It causes a brief period of intense symptoms and is commonly referred to as a "24 hour stomach bug"
answer
Noravirus
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Infection with the Flagellate ___ results in severe, foul-smelling diarrhea with bloating which can persist for weeks and may progress to malabsorption syndrome resulting in significant weight loss
answer
Giardia Intestinalis
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Members of the Enterobacteriaceae are common causes of bacterial urinary tract infections.
answer
True
question
Infection of the urinary tract with adenoviruses may result in
answer
cystis
question
Neonates exposed to __ at birth may develop "cigarette burn" skin lesions and damage to the central nervous system
answer
Human herpes virus
question
A hypersensitivity disorder of the urinary system that may result from systemic infections with Streptococcus pyogenes is known as
answer
glomerulonephritis
question
Which of the following STDs is usually asymptomatic in women but may lead to infertility
answer
chlamydia
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The Gram-negative non-coliform bacillus ___ causes bacterial gastroenteritis commonly contracted from contaminted food
answer
samonellosis
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Infection with the nematode ___ is acquired by ingesting the eggs. The most common symptom of infection is itching in the anal area
answer
enterobius vermicularis
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The DNA virus ___ is primarily spread by contact with blood and can establish asymptomatic or mild infections, but about 10% of infections can lead to chronic infections resulting in severe liver damage.
answer
Hepatitis B
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The bacterium responsible for the biofilm known as dental plaque is
answer
Streptococcus mutans
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The anaerobic endospore-forming bacillus __ is part of the normal intestinal microbiota but may cause opportunistic disease when other intestinal bacteria are depleted by antibiotics
answer
clostridium difficile
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he viral STD that can cause cancer is
answer
HPV
question
The Gram-negative fastidious diplococcus which is transmitted by close contact and causes urethritis in most infected males is
answer
Niesseria gonorea
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The STD caused by a protozoal parasite is
answer
trichomanias
question
the leading STD in the U.S. currently is
answer
genital warts
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The acid-fast bacillus ___ is spread by aerosols and causes slow progressive lung damage resulting in respiratory failure
answer
mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
Valley fever is a respiratory infection caused by the dimorphic true pathogen ___ which is contracted by exposure to wind-blown spores from desert soil.
answer
cocciodies posadiasii
question
The bacterium __ is a member of the Firmicutes and is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia which is often diagnosed by the appearance of a small blister on the ear drum.
answer
mycoplasma pneumoniae
question
The key sign characteristic of pneumonia is
answer
fluid in the luings
question
The respiratory system is considered to be normally free of microbiota (axenic)
answer
false
question
Which of the following nervous system diseases is a zoonosis
answer
West Nile
question
the Gram-negative fastidious diplococcus ___ is transmitted by close contact and aerosols, and causes a meningitis accompanied by petechial rash
answer
niesseria meningitis
question
Persons who accidentally get warm lake water in their noses are at risk of fatal encephalitis caused by the protozoan
answer
Naegieria Fowleria
question
he symptoms of disease caused by the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum are the result of
answer
interefence with the motor neurons
question
Prion disease is acquired by
answer
ingestion of tissue infected with prions
question
Infection with __ results in an acute infection with red rash known as the red measles
answer
Ruebela
question
The bacteria responsible for wound infections frequently called "flesh eating bacteria
answer
streptococcus pyogenes and Stapylococcus aureus