Microbiology Ch.13- 16

25 July 2022
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question
Which of the following statements concerning viruses is true?
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The "host range" for a virus is determined by the presence or absence of particular components on the surface of a host cell that are required for the virus to attach.
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Which statement concerning viral structure is true?
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Spikes are found on some viruses. They are very consistent in structure and can be used for identification.
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How does specialized transduction differ from regular lysogeny?
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The prophage in specialized transduction carries with it pieces of the host chromosomal DNA.
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What happens to the packaged DNA of a specialized transduced phage when it infects a new recipient cell?
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The host DNA integrates, with the prophage, into the new recipient chromosome.
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How can specialized transduction contribute to the transfer of antibiotic resistance genes in a bacterial population?
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The prophage takes an antibiotic resistance gene with it and is packaged with the newly synthesized viral DNA.
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Which of the following is true concerning a lysogenic viral replication cycle?
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During lysogeny, the viral genome integrates into the host DNA, becoming a physical part of the chromosome.
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How are viruses different from cells?
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They require a host in order to reproduce.
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What is the function1 of the structural elements of a virus?
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To package and protect the viral genome
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How do naked viruses differ from enveloped viruses in their attachment/penetration phase?
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Their nucleic acids are injected into the cell.
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Which virus employs the use of an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase?
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+RNA viruses
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Which of the following viruses is transcribed from RNA to DNA to RNA during the replication cycle?
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Retroviruses
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Which type of virus would produce viral glycoproteins to be expressed on the host cell membrane?
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Enveloped viruses
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Which of the following can be used directly as messenger RNA?
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+RNA
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We sometimes are able to generate antibodies (immune system proteins) that bind to and cover up some of the proteins on the outermost portion of a virus while it is in the bloodstream. This renders the virus unable to reproduce. Which step of viral replication are antibodies directly preventing?
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attachment
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Enveloped viruses have a layer of lipids surrounding their capsid. This envelope is made mostly of host cell membrane. In which step does the virus acquire this envelope?
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release
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What occurs during viral uncoating?
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The capsid breaks apart, releasing the viral genome
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Which of the following statements regarding latent viral infections is true?
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Latent infections can persist for years in an individual without causing any symptoms
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Which of the following is true regarding cultivation and isolation of animal viruses?
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Diploid cell culture lines, developed from human embryos, are widely used for culturing viruses that require a human host.
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From which phrase is the term "prions" derived?
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Proteinaceous infectious particles
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In what year did Stanley Prusiner discover prions?
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1982
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Which disease did Stanley Prusiner first identify as being caused by prions?
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Scrapie
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How are prions different from other infectious agents?
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They lack nucleic acid
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The normal function of the PrP protein in mammals is believed to be
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assisting in normal synaptic development and function.
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How do normal prion proteins (PrP) differ from the infectious prion proteins?
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Normal PrP have alpha-helices; infectious PrP have beta-pleated sheets.
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How does the number of infectious prions increase?
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Prions transform normal proteins into the misfolded beta-pleated sheet configuration; therefore, prions multiply by conversion.
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Why are the beta-pleated multimers of PrP potentially pathogenic?
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The multimers are more stable and resistant to protease.
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Which of the following statements concerning prion diseases is true?
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Normal host cellular prion proteins (PrPC) are converted into scrapie proteins (PrPSc).
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Which of the following is true of viroids?
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Viroids are short pieces of naked RNA
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How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
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Viruses are not composed of cells
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Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
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They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host
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Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
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Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes
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hich of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
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They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
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Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
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biochemical tests
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What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
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a segmented genome
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A viral species is a group of viruses that
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has the same genetic information and ecological niche
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Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families
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Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
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DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
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Hepadnaviridae
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Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
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culture media
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A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
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plaque.
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Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
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continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations
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Lysogenic viral DNA integrating into the host genome is referred to as
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a prophage.
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Which of the following events might trigger induction of a temperate bacteriophage?
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Exposure to UV light
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How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic cycle with respect to the infected host cell?
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The host cell dies during the lytic stage.
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What is the fate of the prophage during the lysogenic stage?
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It is copied every time the host DNA replicates.
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In which stage is the viral DNA introduced into the cell?
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Penetration
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In which stage does formation of mature viruses occur?
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Assembly
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The host DNA is usually degraded during which stage?
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Biosynthesis
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What would be the fate of a lytic bacteriophage if the host cell died prior to the assembly stage?
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The virus would not be able to infect new hosts
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Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
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biosynthesis
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The definition of lysogeny is
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phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA
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Which of the following statements is FALSE?
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The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
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Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
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immunity to reinfection by any phage.
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Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA?
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synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
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An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
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release
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A viruss ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
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presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane
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Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
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togavirus
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The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
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budding.
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Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
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lysozyme
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Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves
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injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
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Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
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DNA polymerase
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Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication? 1. Maturation 2. DNA synthesis 3. Transcription 4. Translation
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2; 3; 4; 1
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The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step?
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uncoating
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The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
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synthesis of double-stranded DNA
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Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
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synthesis of DNA
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Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
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RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
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The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.
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true
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The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
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cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates
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Oncogenic viruses
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cause tumors to develop.
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An example of a latent viral infection is
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cold sores
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A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?
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The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
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Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called
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latent viruses
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A persistent infection is one in which
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the disease process occurs gradually over a long period
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Which of the following prion diseases is found in deer and elk?
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Chronic wasting disease
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Which of the following prion diseases was also known as laughing disease?
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Kuru
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Which of the following conditions in humans is linked to bovine spongiform encephalopathy?
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Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
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What part of the nervous system is most affected by fatal familial insomnia?
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Thalamus
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Where does the name "scrapie" come from?
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The prion disorder causes infected sheep to scrape against objects until their skin is raw.
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Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
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PrPSc
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An infectious protein is a
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prion.
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A viroid is a(n)
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infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
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Which of the following statements concerning pathology, infection, and disease is true?
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Pathology refers to the study of structural and functional changes that occur in the body as a result of a disease.
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Which of the following is an example of the symbiotic relationship known as mutualism?
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E. coli within the large intestine
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Koch's postulates established criteria for proving that a specific organism causes a specific disease. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria given by Koch's postulates?
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The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism.
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Which of the following is classified as a latent disease?
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shingles
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Which of the following is a fungal zoonosis that can be transmitted by direct contact?
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ringworm
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Which of the following would be an example of disease transmission via INDIRECT contact?
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A student sneezes on her test booklet. The instructor grades it and catches her cold.
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The following choices list several types of diseases, along with factors that may contribute to their emergence. Which disease and associated factor do NOT match?
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emergence of avian influenza A (H5N1): use of antibiotics
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As a health care worker, I am keenly aware of how important it is to avoid harming my patients. I worry about inadvertently transmitting an infectious disease to an already compromised individual. According to the CDC, what is the MOST important thing I can do to avoid this?
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Wash my hands before interacting with any patient.
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Which of the following statements about the development of infectious diseases is correct?
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The period of convalescence is the time during which the person regains health and fully recovers (back to the pre-disease state).
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Malaria is an infectious disease caused by infection with a protozoan. In certain tropical regions, malaria is constantly present. We would say that malaria is a(n) _________ disease in these regions.
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endemic
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One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in
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increased susceptibility to disease.
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During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. The etiologic agent of the disease in the situation is
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Coxiella burnetii.
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A commensal bacterium
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may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
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Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota
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are present for a relatively short time.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
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bacteria causing disease
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The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
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the normal microbiota
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The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that
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microorganisms cause disease.
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Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition called?
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septicemia
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Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Kochs postulates?
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Some diseases are noncommunicable.
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Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
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epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
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Focal infections initially start out as
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local infections.
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The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can directly attributed to
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vaccinations.
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Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?
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tetanus
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Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
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are changes felt by the patient.
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Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
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secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
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A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as
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latent.
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Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?
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None of the answers are correct; all of these are predisposing factors of disease.
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In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
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urinary tract infections
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In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
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incubation and convalescence
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If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to
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illness.
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Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
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botulism
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Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
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involves specific diseases.
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Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
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None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
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Which of the following is a fomite?
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a hypodermic needle
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Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
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Houseflies are an important vector.
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Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
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None of the pairs is mismatched.
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A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of which form of disease transmission?
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vehicle transmission
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A needlestick is an example of
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fomite.
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During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. the situation is an example of
answer
a zoonosis.
question
During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. The method of transmission of the disease in the situation was
answer
vehicle
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Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
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None of the answers is correct; all of these are zoonoses.
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A nosocomial infection is
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acquired during the course of hospitalization.
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Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial infections?
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gram-negative cell walls
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Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?
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The patient was infected before hospitalization
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Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
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All of the answers are correct.
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Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a
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nosocomial infection.
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Which of the following does NOT contribute to the emergence of infectious diseases?
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The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these
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Which of the following statements is FALSE?
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The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.
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The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
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epidemiology.
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A researcher has performed a prospective study on the disease tetanus. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?
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descriptive
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The CDC is located in
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Atlanta, GA.
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In mice, the LD50 for staphylococcal enterotoxin is 1350 ng/kg, and the LD50 for Shiga toxin is 250 ng/kg. Which of the following statements is true?
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Shiga toxin is more lethal than staphylococcal enterotoxin.
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Which of the following would be an example of an infection initiated via the parenteral route?
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An individual contracts hepatitis B from an accidental stick with a contaminated needle.
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Which statement regarding endotoxins is true?
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One consequence of endotoxins is the activation of blood-clotting proteins.
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Which type of bacterial enzyme helps spread Streptococcus pyogenes by digesting blood clots?
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fibrinolysin
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In which of the following cases would the Limulus amebocyte lysate (LAL) assay be used?
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to ensure that a sterilized medical device is free of endotoxin
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Which of the following statements about adherence is true?
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Most bacterial adhesins are glycoproteins or lipoproteins.
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Which of the following toxins and does NOT match the description?
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Vibrio enterotoxin: a superantigen that destroys epithelial cells
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Which disease would be potentially propagated in an environment without functional plumbing and in which drinking water is contaminated with sewage?
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cholera
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Which of the following statements about lysogenic conversion is true?
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Exotoxin production by bacteria is frequently the result of a lysogenic infection.
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Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect (CPE) of viruses?
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All of the above are possible CPE.
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The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
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mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
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The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the hosts antibodies is called
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antigenic variation.
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Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
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enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
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All of the following contribute to a pathogens invasiveness EXCEPT
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toxins.
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The ID50 is
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the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE?
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Coagulase destroys blood clots.
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Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
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A-B toxin
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Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?
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They are resistant to heat.
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Endotoxins are
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part of the gram-negative cell wall.
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Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
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viral infections.
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Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease?
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cell walls
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All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT
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membrane-disrupting toxins
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Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's
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iron-transport proteins.
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The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of
answer
adhesins and ligands.
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All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT
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hair follicle.
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Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce
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cytokines.
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Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by
answer
boiling food prior to consumption
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All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT
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Salmonella typhi.
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Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?
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release of enzymes from lysosomes
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All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT
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A-B toxins.
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Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to
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tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.
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Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?
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It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
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Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?
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numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production
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Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages
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give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
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Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is
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erythrogenic toxin.
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Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?
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It is readily digested by phagocytes.
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Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to
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superantigens.
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Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?
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the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E. coli
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Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does polio virus use?
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mucous membranes only
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All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT
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Clostridium botulinum.
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Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed,
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polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
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Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to
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engulf the bacteria.
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Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier?
answer
inducing TNF
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Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
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the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.
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Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause
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septic shock symptoms.
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Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step?
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LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria
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Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
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gram-negative bacterial infections.
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Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?
answer
toxin production
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Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that
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streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.
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Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by
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transduction.
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In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes
answer
a decrease in blood pressure.
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Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients inflammation was due to
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endotoxin.
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If one is examining a blood smear from a patient with a parasitic worm infection, which of the following leukocytes would be found in increased numbers (as opposed to a blood smear from a normal patient NOT infected with worms)?
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eosinophils
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Which of the following is an event that ultimately results in activation of complement C3 by splitting it into C3a and C3b?
answer
interaction of mannose-binding lectin with mannose molecules on a bacterium
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Which of the following are best described as short chains of amino acids that are very stable and can have a variety of different antimicrobial activities, such as forming pores in bacterial plasma membranes and inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
answer
antimicrobial peptides
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________________ is/are always present in an individual's blood. However, in the absence of infection, it is in an inactive form.
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Kinins
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You note that the body temperature of one of your patients is starting to increase. As a result, you can infer that all of the following may be occurring in this patient EXCEPT __________.
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dilation of blood vessels
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Which statement regarding the lymphatic system is true?
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Lymphatic capillaries possess one-way valves. These valves permit the uptake of fluid from the body but do not allow the fluid to flow back out of the capillaries into the intracellular spaces.
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Which of the following statements about innate immunity is true?
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Innate immunity is present at birth
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Which of the following statements concerning phagocytosis is true?
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Bacteria are digested when the phagosome fuses with a lysosome
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Innate immunity
answer
is nonspecific and present at birth.
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All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
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HCl.
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The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
answer
trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucous and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.
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Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
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macrophages
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TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
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AMPs.
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A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
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the number of red blood cells.
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The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of
answer
C3.
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All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT
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lysozymes.
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A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
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phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
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Margination refers to
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adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE?
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Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
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Which of the following is found normally in serum?
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complement
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Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
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interference with viral replication.
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Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
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increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
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Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT
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they produce lysozyme.
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Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT
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formation of phagolysosomes.
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The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT
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inhibition of phagocytosis.
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The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
answer
goes into lymph capillaries.
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Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?
answer
They develop from neutrophils.
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Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with microorganisms EXCEPT
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lysozyme.
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All of the following are affects of histamine EXCEPT
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fever.
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All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT
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production of antibodies.
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A chill is a sign that
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body temperature is rising.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE?
answer
There are at least thirty complement proteins.
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Which of the following is mismatched?
answer
chemotaxis chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome
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All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT
answer
they are effective for long periods.
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The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
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lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
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The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by
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antigen-antibody reactions.
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Activation of C3a results in
answer
acute inflammation.
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Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
answer
production of antibody.
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Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to
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produce toxic oxygen products.
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After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
answer
complement.
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Activation of C5-C9 results in
answer
lysis of microbial cells.
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All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT
answer
they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.
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Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?
answer
eosinophils
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Macrophages arise from which of the following?
answer
monocytes
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All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it
answer
accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.
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All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT
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siderophorin.
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All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
answer
vasodilation
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The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by
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mannose on the surface of microbes.
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All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT
answer
diapedesis.
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Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe?
answer
deficiency of C3
question
Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?
answer
C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
question
Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial
answer
cell wall.
question
Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?
answer
mucociliary escalator intestines
question
Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.
answer
True
question
Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.
answer
True