Healthy Wealthy Wise Final

The primary goal of wellness is the ability to achieve A. freedom from disease. B. a multicultural view of health. C. the highest possible quality of life. D. greater control over lifestyle decisions.

All of the following are considered social determinants of health, EXCEPT for A. income B. educational attainment C. working conditions D. individual lifestyle choices

Which of the following best demonstrates an ecological view of health and wellness? A. seeking a natural balance between your own life forces and those in your environment B. being aware of hereditary risks and avoiding unhealthy environments and behaviors C. going to the doctor whenever you suspect an illness D. seeking nontraditional medical treatments

One of the hallmarks of community health promotion is its emphasis on improving A. common health-related resources. B. privately funded wellness programs. C. taxpayer-funded health initiatives. D. the regulation of hospitals and clinics.

Which of the following best illustrates a public health measure? A. upgrading the local hospital's dialysis equipment B. preventing the spread of disease-carrying insects C. medical schools competing for research grants D. promoting a new surgical technique

The aspect of personal health that is most within your control is A. genetic inheritance. B. human biology. C. lifestyle. D. environment.

Charlie's sister lectures him daily about the threat that his smoking poses to his health. She argues that, if he quits, he would improve both his health and his athletic performance. Charlie knows his sister is right, but according to the Health Belief Model, he will only quit smoking if A. he thinks he can and that it will be worth the effort. B. others also criticize his smoking. C. his sister stops lecturing him. D. he has a serious health scare

The Transtheoretical Model (TTM) of health behavior change differs from the Health Belief Model in its emphasis on the A. need for change. B. stages of change. C. benefits of change. D. effectiveness of change.

Mackenzie has resolved to start exercising three times a week when her membership at a local gym begins in two weeks. In which stage of change in the Transtheoretical Model is Mackenzie operating? A. contemplation B. action C. precontemplation D. preparation E. maintenance

In which stage of change in the Transtheoretical Model does an individual intend to change a specific health behavior within the next six months? A. preparation B. contemplation C. maintenance D. precontemplation E. action

Which of the following statements best illustrates a sense of self-efficacy? A. I should do it. B. I can't do it. C. I must do it. D. I can do it.

Which of the following best illustrates a SMART goal? A. I will get more exercise in the new year. B. I will avoid situations where I am tempted to eat junk food. C. I will make smart health choices in each major life activity. D. I will eat my meals on time and limit myself to one snack daily

An approach to psychological research that, instead of studying mental illness, studies such things as happiness, character strengths, and healthy emotions is called A. positive thinking. B. positivism. C. positive health modeling. D. positive psychology.

Research on positive psychology has led scientists to identify six virtues that "enable human thriving." One of these is A. temperance. B. competitiveness. C. individualism. D. zeal.

Which of the following is most strongly associated with mental health? A. isolation B. optimism C. intelligence D. self-employment

This type of intelligence involves sensitivity, empathy for others, self-discipline, and social competence. A. spatial B. general C. emotional D. interpersonal

Mentally healthy people tend to have A. high-paying jobs. B. high self-esteem. C. a high percentage of risk factors. D. a minimal support system.

A sense of self-efficacy means that you believe you are A. always right. B. a good person. C. more gifted than others are. D. in control of your circumstances.

The ability to bounce back from an adverse event is known as A. rewarding. B. retribution. C. resilience. D. recognition.

Which of the following is one of the most important ingredients in a mentally healthy life? A. going to a top 10 college B. social support C. getting married D. having children

The basic premise of Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory is that people will pursue their highest potential when A. more basic needs are met. B. they model the behavior of other successful people. C. they can acknowledge all of their psychological faults. D. circumstances force them to do it.

In the hierarchy of needs pyramid, the order of human needs progresses as follows: A. safety and security, physiological needs, self-esteem, love and belongingness, self-actualization. B. physiological needs, safety and security, love and belongingness, self-esteem, self-actualization. C. physiological needs, safety and security, self-actualization, self-esteem, love and belongingness. D. safety and security, love and belongingness, physiological needs, self-esteem, self-actualization.

The highest level of Maslow's needs hierarchy is characterized by A. constant self-absorption. B. a profound sense of unworthiness. C. a continuing drive to achieve more. D. a state of transcendence and well-being

The stress response is a series of ____________ that occur in the face of a threat. A. trained behaviors B. physiological changes C. threatening images D. irrational thoughts

What bodily changes are associated with the sympathetic nervous system's response during stress? A. decreased blood pressure B. blood directed to the extremities C. heart rate slows D. metabolism increases

Selye proposed the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model to explain A. how organisms respond physiologically to stressors. B. how different people respond differently to stress. C. the difference between good and bad stress. D. the effects of stress on our health.

The _______________ stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome is characterized by a reduction in immune system functioning that will be temporary if the stress is over quickly. A. exhaustion B. alarm C. fight-or-flight D. resistance

Immunity is suppressed in which stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome? A. exhaustion B. alarm C. fight-or-flight D. resistance

Long-term exposure to stress can damage the cardiovascular system by causing A. sudden, dangerous increases in the heart rate. B. excessive electrical activity in heart muscle. C. chronic high blood pressure. D. heart valve malfunction.

Iraq war veteran Mallory was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder based on the fact that her symptoms were A. acute and disabling. B. irregular and nonspecific. C. hampering her readjustment to civilian life. D. not apparent until a year after she returned home.

Which of the following is the LEAST severe of the stress-related disorders? A. acute stress disorder B. adjustment disorder C. individual stress disorder D. post-traumatic stress disorder

An achievement orientation is associated with which personality type? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C D. Type D

When under stress, college students who smoke tend to A. try to quit. B. smoke less. C. smoke more. D. gain weight.

Research findings about the eating habits of college students at times of high stress indicate that A. they pay no attention to what they eat. B. they pay closer attention to healthy eating. C. academic stress is the leading cause of anorexia nervosa. D. they often change eating patterns to "manage" the stress

The concept central to ______________ is to calm the mind, cleanse the body, and raise awareness through activities involving posture, breathing, and body and mind awareness. A. affirmations B. t'ai chi C. biofeedback D. yoga

______________ is(are) positive thoughts that one can write down or say to oneself to balance negative thoughts. A. Affirmations B. Distortions C. Biofeedback D. Achievements

The gathering of information about your heart rate, breathing, and skin temperature in order to recognize stress response symptoms is called A. affirmation. B. regulation. C. biofeedback. D. yoga.

All of the following are functions of water, EXCEPT A. helping to regulate body temperature. B. lubricating our moving parts. C. absorbing and transporting nutrients. D. providing energy for the nervous system. E. carrying waste products out of the body.

Mary burns 2,000 calories a day; she requires approximately _____ cups of water daily. A. 2-4 B. 6-8 C. 8-12 D. 14-16

Sometimes called "blood sugar," ___________ is the main provider of energy for the brain and nervous system. A. glucose B. lactose C. sucrose D. fructose

Which of the following statements is TRUE about fiber? A. Fiber is best obtained through pills and other fiber supplements. B. Consuming excessive fiber can increase vitamin absorption. C. Increases in daily fiber intake should be gradual. D. The typical American diet provides about 25g of fiber a day.

The main purpose of proteins is to A. protect body organs and membranes. B. help regulate body temperature. C. build and maintain body tissue. D. provide energy for the brain.

When Kristi, a vegetarian, combines foods such as beans and rice to consume the right amino acids, she is practicing A. protein matching. B. mutual supplementation. C. enzyme reduction. D. weight management.

The acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for protein is _____ percent of daily energy intake. A. 1-10 B. 10-35 C. 45-60 D. 70-80

Of the following individuals, who needs the LEAST protein? A. Derek, a 300-pound manager B. Christian, a 60-pound four-year-old C. Michelle, a 140-pound mother-to-be D. Scott, a 175-pound farmer E. Sonja, a 120-pound nursing mother

Which of the following statements is TRUE about fats in food? A. Fats are a primary source of quick energy. B. Fats affect the texture and taste, but not the smell, of foods. C. Fats stop the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins D. Fats are the principal form of stored energy in the body.

Which of the following food products is highest in unsaturated fats? A. vegetable oils B. palm oils C. poultry D. whole-milk

The fatty acids now considered most hazardous to health are the A. polyunsaturated fatty acids. B. trans-fatty acids. C. high density lipoprotein acids. D. monounsaturated fatty acids.

Most adults need only ______ percent of their daily calorie intake in the form of fat. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25 E. 30

Your body needs _____ essential minerals. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Which of the following statements about vitamins and minerals is FALSE? A. Consuming excessive amounts of vitamins or minerals can lead to toxicity. B. Two types of vitamins exist - fat- and water-soluble. C. Minerals are organic substances; vitamins are inorganic. D. Vitamins and minerals are both micronutrients

Your body needs at least ________ specific vitamins. A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11 E. 15

Oxygen in the body is metabolized to produce unstable molecules called ________, which can damage cell DNA. A. antioxidants B. phytochemicals C. free radicals D. phytoesterols

Which of the following is TRUE of phytochemicals? A. Nutritionists say most people should take them as supplements. B. Research suggests they have many health benefits. C. Only a limited number of foods contain them. D. They are common biochemicals altered by radiation.

Which of the following can neutralize free radical molecules before they cause much damage? A. phytoestrogens B. phytotesterones C. antioxidants D. phytonutrients

Unlike previous versions of the food guide pyramid, MyPyramid specifically encourages A. vitamin supplementation. B. occasional snacking. C. occasional fasting. D. physical activity.

The term _____________ refers to a culture's food habits, customs, beliefs, and preferences. A. cuisine B. food way C. acculturation D. cultivated

The Asian food pyramid emphasizes ____________ the least, as it is found at the top of the pyramid. A. dairy B. meat C. sugar D. fats

The ability to perform daily living activities with vigor is known as A. exercise. B. health-related fitness. C. skill-related fitness. D. physical fitness.

Which of the following components of fitness is associated with speed? A. skill-related fitness B. sport-related fitness C. health-related fitness D. physical activity-related fitness

All of the following are associated with physical activity, EXCEPT A. reducing the pain and swelling of arthritis. B. increasing depth of breathing. C. increasing bone density. D. decreasing output of hormones.

Which of the following statements about physical activity is FALSE? A. Physical activity often improves the quality of sleep. B. Short-term exercise training significantly improves cognitive functioning. C. Physical activity decreases the risk of depression and anxiety. D. Stress tension declines significantly with physical activity

Activities in the 3-6 METs range are considered to be of ________________ intensity. A. low B. moderate C. high D. vigorous

6. Activities in the 6-8 METs range are considered to be of ________________ intensity. A. low B. moderate C. high D. vigorous

7. Holly is preparing a workout plan and wants to include her target heart rate. If Holly is 30 years old and wants to workout at 70 percent intensity, what would be her target heart rate? A. 133 B. 154 C. 163 D. 184

The four components of cardiorespiratory training do NOT include A. type. B. frequency. C. time. D. weight. E. intensity.

Which of the following statements about the frequency of cardiorespiratory training is FALSE? A. The ideal frequency for training is three times per week. B. In general, it is necessary to exercise at least five times a week to obtain adaptation changes in the cardiorespiratory system. C. To control weight, strong consideration should be given to exercising five or six times per week. D. The principle of overload is important for cardiorespiratory fitness.

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that people exercise at a THR between _____ percent to _____ percent of their maximum heart rate. A. 10; 20 B. 20; 45 C. 40; 55 D. 55; 90 E. 90; 95

Mandy, age 20, wants to lose some weight she gained over the holiday season. Mandy's target heart rate objective is 80 percent. Using the Maximum Heart Rate formula, what is Mandy's target heart rate for exercise? A. 140 B. 160 C. 180 D. 200

Resistance training results in all of the following health benefits, EXCEPT A. preventing osteoporosis. B. improving quality of life. C. reducing obesity. D. preventing cancer.

Pilates, one of the most popular training exercises taught in health clubs today, is most strongly associated with which type of exercise training? A. core-strength B. strength-endurance C. muscle power D. flexibility

Which of the following statements about flexibility and flexibility training is FALSE? A. Stretching programs can reduce flexibility loss associated with aging. B. Flexibility is highest in teenage years. C. Stretch before your other exercise in order to see greatest improvement in flexibility. D. Aging results in rigidity, shortening of tendons, and, thus, reduced flexibility.

Individuals with a(n) _______________ body type gain muscle more easily than other body types. A. somatotype B. mesomorphic C. endomorphic D. ectomorphic

Stretching is very important in preventing injuries, reducing muscle tension, and promoting flexibility. Which of the following is NOT one of the four popular stretching techniques for exercise? A. ballistic B. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) C. static D. dynamic E. passive

Mackenzie and Mary often exercise together; they also aid each other in stretching before their workouts. Mackenzie and Mary are practicing which type of stretching? A. ballistic B. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation C. static D. dynamic E. passive

Olympic and elite athletes often practice ______________ stretching, which is not recommended for most people because it makes an individual vulnerable to muscle pulls and tears. A. ballistic B. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation C. static D. dynamic E. passive

Which of the following statements regarding flexibility programs is FALSE? A. To maintain flexibility, stretching a minimum of two or three times a week is recommended. B. You will experience the greatest improvement in flexibility if you do your stretching exercises before aerobic exercise. C. Stretch to a point of mild discomfort (not pain). D. Stretches should be gentle, slow, and steady before aerobic exercise.

You can turn light activity into moderate activity by increasing the ____________. A. duration B. warm up time C. intensity D. number of activities

Which of the following statements regarding warm-ups and cool-downs is FALSE? A. A minimum of five to ten minutes should be devoted to cool-down. B. Suggested warm-up exercises include a low-intensity version of the exercise you are about to engage in. C. When you continue in light activity for a cool-down, blood vessels gradually return to their normal smaller diameter. D. Taking a hot shower immediately after a main exercise program effectively aids in cool-down and blood flow return to the heart. E. Muscles contract more efficiently and more safely when they have been properly warmed up.

Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms parents, coaches, and physicians should look for to determine if a child may have heart defect problems? A. high blood pressure B. fainting episodes C. frequent labored breathing D. sudden chest pain during exercise or at rest E. irregular or high heart rate at rest or during exercise

Krista is a softball catcher in Texas; which of the following is NOT one of the key strategies Krista would use to prevent excessive increases in body temperature and heat disorders? A. drinking plenty before exercise B. skin wetting C. hypothermia D. drinking plenty during exercise

When does the most significant drop in physical activity typically occur in people's lives? A. early middle school years B. later high school years and freshman year of college C. later college years and immediately following D. years following birth of children E. middle age years (40 and above)

Common barriers to an active lifestyle cited by adults include all of the following, EXCEPT A. fear of injury. B. boredom. C. lack of confidence. D. social pressures

Which of the following statements about changing one's lifestyle to be more active is FALSE? A. Self-assessment is critical in the preparation stage. B. Goal setting is essential in the action stage. C. When you have been physically active almost every day for 6 months or more, you are in the maintenance stage. D. The termination stage comes when an individual becomes unable to do the behavior.

Obesity is defined as having a body mass index higher than _____. A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 39

Overweight, a condition that is less serious than obesity, is defined as having a BMI between ______ and ______. A. 25; 29.9 B. 18.5; 25.9 C. 30; 35.9 D. 30; 39.9

John weighs 242 pounds and has a body mass index of 26; John is considered A. normal weight. B. overweight. C. obese. D. not enough information is provided.

All of the following indicate a healthy body weight, EXCEPT A. a weight within an acceptable range for one's height. B. a fat distribution that is not a risk factor for illness. C. a weight within the common range for one's age group. D. the absence of medical conditions that suggest a need for weight loss.

The body mass index (BMI) is used mainly to determine A. how your body weight may affect your health. B. how height correlates with weight. C. your overall physical condition. D. your body fat percentage.

Who of the following has a body fat percentage outside of the range generally considered healthy? A. Richard, a dentist, with 26 percent body fat B. Abbie, a female college gymnast, with 17 percent body fat C. Clarke, a male college soccer star, with 16 percent body fat D. Caroline, a travel agent, with 26 percent body fat

Which of the following statements about body fat percentages is TRUE? A. Body fat percentage for women decreases during puberty. B. Average body fat percentage does not differ by gender. C. Some hormones cannot be produced when body fat falls below a certain threshold. D. Ethnicity has no influence on body fat percentage.

___________ is known as a reduction in calorie intake below daily needs. A. Calorie restriction B. Dieting C. Purging D. Disordered eating

Eating disorders are most likely to develop during which stage of life? A. childhood B. adolescence C. early twenties D. middle age

Which of the following statements about eating disorders and puberty is FALSE? A. By sixth grade, twice as many girls as boys consider themselves fat. B. Boys are likely to be dissatisfied with their upper-body image during puberty. C. Male body fat naturally increases during puberty in response to hormones. D. Female body fat naturally increases during puberty in response to hormones.

Which of the following statements about ethnicity and body image is FALSE? A. White, Black, Asian, and Hispanic women report similar concerns regarding body dissatisfaction, dieting, and pressure to be thin. B. Black men report more positive body image than White men. C. White males appear to engage in more extreme weight loss strategies and binge eating than do non-White males. D. Native Americans report slightly greater body image concerns than White men.

Men appear to report dieting for different reasons from those of women, including all of the following, EXCEPT A. men are shape-oriented rather than weight oriented. B. they usually diet for a specific reason, such as sports performance. C. they focus on the upper body rather than the lower body. D. men hope to improve their appearance to advance in the workplace

Grooming products are increasingly becoming more acceptable for males, as advertisers use product names that suggest ____________, to attract males. A. love B. sex C. power D. money

Although men diet, they do so for different reasons than females do. Males tend to focus their attention on ___________, whereas women focus on ___________. A. muscle; weight B. shape; weight C. strength; weight D. size; weight

Individuals in sports that place a higher emphasis on leanness to enhance performance or appearance have a greater risk of developing an eating disorder. Which of the following is NOT one of these higher-risk sports? A. dancing B. horse racing C. soccer D. wrestling E. long-distance running

Women who compete in _________, __________ sports have the least risk of eating disorders. A. elite, non-lean B. non-elite, non-lean C. elite, lean D. non-elite, lean

Which of the following statements about the prevalence of eating disorders is FALSE? A. Eating disorders are more prevalent where food is abundant. B. The frequency of eating disorders in a society appears directly related to rates of dieting. C. Eating disorders are mainly found in Western developed countries. D. In the last 30 years, the number of diagnosed cases of eating disorders in the United States has declined.

Which organization sets the standards for diagnosing eating disorders? A. Centers for Disease Control B. American Medical Association C. American Psychiatric Association D. World Health Organization

All of the following are standards used for diagnosing anorexia nervosa, EXCEPT A. intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight. B. refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height. C. amenorrhea. D. disturbance in the way in which body weight or shape is perceived. E. lack of appetite.

Which of the following is one of the most serious long-term side effects of severe calorie restriction in women? A. osteoporosis B. memory loss C. scoliosis D. amenorrhea

Julia consumes huge meals throughout the day and then hits the gym for hours of exercise each night. Which type of eating disorder does Julia most likely have? A. binge eating disorder B. purging type bulimia nervosa C. nonpurging type bulimia nervosa D. muscle dysmorphia

Which of the following disorders has been recognized as a psychological disturbance that leads to obesity? A. binge eating disorder B. muscle dysmorphia C. activity disorder D. bulimia

People with binge eating disorder differ from obese people in all of the following ways, EXCEPT A. they are less likely to have depression. B. they have more fluctuations in weight. C. treatment programs for them should place more emphasis on patterns of eating and less emphasis on dieting. D. they have recurrent episodes of binging.

Individuals with eating disorders share many of the same thought patterns as people with which condition? A. alcoholism B. schizophrenia C. drug addiction D. depression

Common thought patterns associated with eating disorders include all of the following, EXCEPT A. black-and-white thinking. B. feelings of emptiness. C. indifference to others' opinions. D. a self-critical attitude.

What condition carries the highest death rate of all psychiatric diagnoses? A. bulimia nervosa B. depression C. bipolar disorder D. anorexia nervosa

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with anorexia nervosa? A. dry, cold, discolored skin B. bloated abdomen and constipation C. decreased sex drive D. high blood pressure

Which eating disorder is most associated with electrolyte imbalances? A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. binge eating disorder D. muscle dysmorphia

Rachel purges her food after meals. She can expect all of the following health effects, EXCEPT A. electrolyte imbalances leading to irregular rhythms of the heart. B. erosion of tooth enamel from stomach acid. C. activation of starvation mode, shutting down all unnecessary activity. D. inflammation of the esophagus, which appears as heartburn.

Kim has noticed her teeth have become extremely sensitive to both hot and cold foods. She is bothered by frequent heartburn, and antacids do not seem to help. Which eating disorder does Kim most likely have? A. anorexia nervosa B. bulimia nervosa C. binge eating disorder D. body dysmorphic disorder

Which of the following statements regarding alcohol use in the United States is TRUE? A. About one-third of adults call themselves abstainers. B. About 90 percent of American adults drink alcohol. C. About 40 percent of adults who drink are considered heavy drinkers. D. About 50 percent of college students drink alcoholic beverages.

One drink is defined by the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism as ___________ ounce(s) of alcohol. A. 0.5 B. 1.0 C. 1.5 D. 2.0

Binge drinking on college campuses is most strongly influenced by A. the social environment. B. economic conditions. C. education levels. D. heredity.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about ethnic differences in alcohol use? A. Whites are more likely to abstain from alcohol use than African Americans. B. Hispanic men and Hispanic women have similar alcohol consumption rates. C. Alcohol consumption is higher among Asian Americans than among White Americans. D. Socioeconomic and environmental factors influence ethnic differences in alcohol use.

Alcoholism is recognized by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services as the number one health problem for which population? A. Asian Americans B. African Americans C. Native Americans D. Hispanic Americans E. Latino Americans

Which population group tends to drink very little or abstain from alcohol because of a biological reaction to alcohol? A. Asian Americans B. African Americans C. Native Americans D. Hispanic Americans E. Latino Americans

Which of the following is the best way to break a pattern of excessive alcohol use? A. Keep a drinking diary. B. Set goals for change. C. Ask a friend to hide your alcohol. D. Reduce the amount of alcohol in your drinks

Your friend was arrested for drunken driving; police said they had smelled alcohol on his breath. How is this possible? A. Our breath retains strong non-alcoholic odors from drinks, especially beer. B. Traces of alcoholic drinks remain in the tissues lining the mouth. C. About 25 percent of alcohol is metabolized in the mouth. D. The body excretes some alcohol directly into exhaled air.

All of the following factors increase the absorption of alcohol, EXCEPT A. alcohol concentration in the drink. B. carbonation. C. nicotine. D. anger.

Which of the following statements about the metabolizing of alcohol is TRUE? A. Most alcohol is metabolized in the stomach. B. Everyone has the same level of alcohol dehydrogenase in their bodies. C. About 30 percent of alcohol is excreted in the breath, urine, and skin pores. D. Alcohol that is not immediately metabolized circulates throughout the body

All of the following slow down the absorption of alcohol into the bloodstream, EXCEPT A. food. B. water. C. stress. D. smoking.

Alcohol is metabolized by the liver at a rate of ________ ounce per hour. A. one-quarter B. one-half C. three-quarters D. one

You drank far too much last night, and as a result this morning you feel like you have a bad case of the flu. The best way to cope with your hangover is to A. eat a large meal. B. drink small quantities of alcohol. C. take a painkiller and rest until you feel better. D. engage in activity that increases your heart rate.

Death can result from alcohol intoxication beginning at a blood alcohol content level of about _________. A. 0.50 B. 0.45 C. 0.35 D. 0.20 E. 0.10

Travis passed out on the floor after a drinking contest, and now you can't wake him. The best thing you can do for him is A. call 911. B. carry him to a bed. C. roll him onto his side. D. cover him with a warm blanket.

Alcohol abuse can lead directly to all of the following, EXCEPT A. stroke. B. lung cancer. C. heart disease. D. brain damage.

Which of the following is TRUE of alcohol-induced cirrhosis? A. It usually takes about 10 years of steady, heavy drinking for cirrhosis to develop. B. It can occur without symptoms in some people. C. It begins at the moment a person takes his or her first drink. D. Its effects can be reversed by about 30 days' abstinence from drinking

The human brain completes its development by which stage of life? A. infancy B. childhood C. adolescence D. early twenties

Alcohol use is a factor in about ________ of suicides in the United States. A. one-eighth B. one-third C. two-thirds D. three-quarters

All of the following statements are TRUE about the health benefits of moderate alcohol consumption, EXCEPT A. one to two drinks a day can elevate HDL. B. the type of alcoholic beverage is more important than the pattern of drinking. C. although women may reduce their risk of coronary heart disease, they may increase their risk of breast cancer. D. it poses less heart disease risk than abstaining

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding relapse prevention from alcoholism? A. Relapse prevention requires long-term psychotherapy. B. Most people who complete treatment need not be concerned about relapse. C. The challenge of relapse may be caused by alcohol-induced changes in the brain. D. Most people who complete treatment for substance abuse immediately begin substance abuse again.

A practice that has substantially increased compliance with drunk driving laws is A. tax increases. B. server liability laws. C. sobriety checkpoints. D. raising the legal drinking age

The smoking rate for adults in the United States has leveled off at approximately _____ percent. A. 8 B. 13 C. 20 D. 41 E. 54

Which of the following segments of the U.S. population has the highest rate of smoking? A. African American B. Alaska Natives C. Asian Americans D. Hispanics

Of the carcinogenic substances in tobacco smoke, which is the most damaging to the lungs? A. tar B. nicotine C. endorphins D. nitrous oxide E. carbon monoxide

Which of the following statements is TRUE about nicotine? A. Several minutes are required for smokers to feel its effects. B. In the brain, it stimulates the release of adrenaline and endorphins. C. It is actually one of the less addictive substances in tobacco. D. The body does not build up a tolerance for nicotine.

Which of the following is TRUE of cigar smoking? A. Most cigar smokers inhale the smoke. B. Cigars present a rather low cancer risk. C. Cigars contain more nicotine than cigarettes. D. Cigar smoke is less harmful than cigarette smoke.

Friendships are important relationships that increase your sense of belonging, purpose, and A. level of activity. B. self-worth. C. ability to get ahead. D. reward.

Which of the following is a strong predictor of a happy marriage? A. cohabitation before marriage B. a long engagement C. maturity D. two partners of the same age

Which of the following makes it more likely that two people will develop a romantic relationship? A. having different opinions and attitudes B. proximity C. differing physical characteristics such as age and attractiveness D. differing levels of educational attainment

In Sternberg's Love Triangle, the emotional component of love is called A. passion. B. commitment. C. cohabitation. D. intimacy.

Which of the following is NOT one of the dimensions in Sternberg's Love Triangle A. intimacy B. passion C. commitment D. romance

Which of the following means speaking up for yourself (you) without violating the rights of others? A. aggressiveness B. assertiveness C. passiveness D. companionship

The meaning behind the message, conveyed by nonverbal behavior and situational factors, is called the A. metamessage. B. true message. C. nonverbal communication D. alpha message.

According to Tannen, men are more likely than women to use communication to A. compete. B. connect. C. create intimacy. D. look for common ground.

Behaviors and characteristics considered appropriate for a male or female in a particular culture is called one's A. sex. B. gender. C. orientation. D. gender identity

Biological status as a male or female, usually established at birth by the appearance of external genitals, is called one's A. sex. B. gender. C. orientation. D. gender identity.

In the United States, who specifies the rights and responsibilities of the partners in a marriage? A. federal government B. city government C. religious organizations D. state government

Same-sex couples often have to deal with A. homophobia. B. rigid roles and responsibilities. C. poor communication skills. D. increases in sexually transmitted diseases

Which of the following statements about cohabitation is TRUE? A. Cohabitation is defined as two people of the same or opposite sex living together as unmarried partners. B. Cohabitation was more popular in the 1960s compared to the 2000s. C. Most couples today do not believe it is a good idea to live together in order to decide if they should get married. D. Some controversial studies have shown that cohabitation decreases the likelihood of success in marriage.

Which of the following statements about condom use is TRUE? A. Condoms provide complete protection against all STDs. B. Only latex condoms should be used with oil-based lubricants. B. Plastic condoms have been more extensively tested than latex condoms. D. Plastic condoms are thinner, stronger, and less constricting than latex condoms.

_____________________ is a soft pouch of thin polyurethane that is inserted into the vagina before intercourse to prevent conception and protect against STDs. A. A dental dam B. A female condom C. Spermicidal foam D. Plastic wrap

Of the following, the most significant concern about pornography is its potential connection to A. a loss of productivity. B. criminal behavior. D. competitiveness. C. racism.

Barrier methods of contraception include all of the following EXCEPT A. a diaphragm B. a vaginal contraceptive ring C. a cervical cap D. a female condom

Which of the following statements about barrier methods of contraception is FALSE? A. Spermicides should be used with a diaphragm or a cervical cap. B. A woman must be fitted for the correctly sized diaphragm. C. The contraceptive sponge reduces the rate of sexually transmitted disease transmission. D. Male condoms decrease the rate of sexually transmitted disease transmission.

Of the following contraceptive methods, which is NOT a hormonal method? A. post-coital contraception B. vaginal ring C. injectable contraceptive D. vasectomy

Which of the following is NOT one of the potential complications associated with taking oral contraceptives? A. heart attack B. seizure C. stroke D. blood clots

Which of the following statements regarding emergency contraceptives is FALSE? A. Emergency contraceptives are used within 48 to 72 hours of unprotected sex. B. Emergency contraceptives are considered abortogenic agents. C. Emergency contraceptives reduce the chance that an ovum will be fertilized. D. Some pharmacies distribute emergency contraceptives without a physician's order

Which of the following statements about intrauterine devices (IUDs) is TRUE? A. IUDs provide a permanent, irreversible form of contraception for women. B. IUDs are highly effective at preventing pregnancy and require little maintenance after they are in place. C. An IUD can be purchased from a pharmacy and placed by a woman prior to intercourse. D. Spermicide should be used with an IUD.

Ovulation typically occurs ________ days before the menstrual period begins. A. 7 B. 10 C. 14 D. 20

Which of the following statements about the fertility awareness method is FALSE? A. The method requires the use of abstinence or barrier methods for part of the month. B. A woman's temperature increases approximately 0.5 degrees Fahrenheit with ovulation. C. The amount and consistency of a woman's cervical mucus changes with ovulation. D. The method is effective for any woman if she watches her body's signs.

If a man and his partner decide they do not want any children in the future, he may consider having which procedure for permanent sterilization? A. IUD placement B. hormonal injection C. vasectomy D. hernia operation

Carmen places a circular rubber dome containing spermicide in her vagina prior to intercourse; Carmen is using which type of contraceptive? A. vaginal ring B. IUD C. diaphragm D. female condom

Mandy has been taking her temperature every morning with an accurate basal body thermometer; Mandy is most likely using which type of contraception? A. fertility awareness method B. withdrawal C. oral contraceptives D. hormonal implant

The most common sexually transmitted disease in the United States is A. hepatitis C. B. chlamydia C. human papillomavirus (HPV). D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). E. gonorrhea.

A safe and effective vaccine is available for which of the following sexually transmitted diseases? A. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. syphilis C. chlamydia D. hepatitis B

Fredrico has painful sores on his penis; which sexually transmitted disease does Fredrico most likely have? A. herpes simplex B. gonorrhea C. hepatitis C D. chlamydia

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea and chlamydia is FALSE? A. The highest rates of gonorrhea and chlamydia infection are found in men and women aged 15 to 24 years. B. Women with either infection are usually asymptomatic. C. Antibiotics are available for treatment. D. Most men with chlamydia infection will have symptoms.

Which of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus is FALSE? A. HIV is spread by the exchange of infected body fluids. B. Most HIV cases currently occur in sub-Sarahan Africa. C. In the United States, sexual contact is involved in about 85% of newly diagnosed HIV infections. D. The CDC recommends that everyone between the ages of 13 and 64 be tested for HIV infection at least once during routine medical care.

Which of the following situations has NOT been shown to transmit HIV between individuals? A. oral intercourse B. anal intercourse C. vaginal intercourse D. casual contact, such as holding hands or hugging

Which of the following is TRUE regarding perinatal transmission of HIV? A. The risk of transmission from mother to child can be significantly reduced by the use of antiretroviral medication during pregnancy and delivery. B. Breast feeding is not a risk for HIV transmission, and women with HIV infection in the United States and Canada are encouraged to breast feed. C. Women in the United States and Canada are not routinely offered HIV testing during pregnancy, but they should request it if they feel they are at risk. D. The risk of perinatal HIV transmission only occurs at the time of delivery.

Hepatitis C most severely affects which area of the body? A. heart B. kidneys C. liver D. small intestine