Genetics Chapters 10,11,12

24 July 2022
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question
In 1928, Frederick Griffith established what?
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Heat-killed bacteria harbor the constituent(s) necessary to convey genetic properties to living bacteria.
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To be certain that the extract prepared from virulent cells still contained the transforming principle that was present prior to lysis, Avery _____.
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Incubated nonvirulent cells with the complete extract.
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If Avery had observed transformation using only the extracts containing degraded DNA, degraded RNA, and degraded protein, but NOT the extract containing degraded polysaccharides, he would have concluded that ____.
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Polysaccharides are the genetic material.
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The Hershey and Chase experiments involved the preparation of two different types of radioactively labeled phage. Which of the following best explains why two preparations were required?
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It was necessary that each of the two phage components, DNA and protein, be identifiable upon recovery at the end of the experiment.
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What best represents the central conclusion of the Hershey-Chase experiments?
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DNA is the identity of the hereditary material in phage T2.
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What outcome would be most likely if the Hershey-Chase experiments were repeated without the step involving the blender?
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Both preparations of infected bacteria would exhibit radioactivity.
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What conclusions did Griffith draw from his experiments?
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A transforming factor from a virulent strain of bacteria can make non-virulent strain virulent.
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True/False. Guanine and adenine are purines found in DNA.
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True.
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What is a true statement about DNA?
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The nucleic acid strands in a DNA molecule are oriented antiparallel to each other, meaning they run in opposite directions.
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What is the complementary DNA sequence to 5' ATGCTTGACTG 3' ?
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5' CAGTCAAGCAT 3'
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Dna is composed of 4 different types of ___. Each one is made up of a pentose ___, a ____ group, and one of 4 _____.
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nucleotides, sugar, phosphate, nitrogenous bases.
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Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are _____.
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nitrogenous bases.
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Adenine and guanine, which have nine-member double-ring, are called ___.
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purines
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Cytosine and thymine, which have a six-member single-ring, are called ____.
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pyrimidines.
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Deoxyribonucleotides bind together to form polynucleotides. This bond occurs between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the C ___' position of a ____ of another nucleotide. The type of bond formed in this interaction is called a _____ bond.
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3, sugar, phosphodiester.
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The nitrogenous bases of each nucleotide project ____ the double helix. Therefrom complementary base pairs through the formation of _____ bonds with bases on the opposite DNA strand.
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into, hydrogen.
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Adenine complementarily binds with thymine and forms ___ ___ bonds.
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2 hydrogen.
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Guanine complementarily binds with cytosine and forms ____ ____ bonds.
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3 hydrogen.
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Statements about the basic structural feature of DNA.
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In a DNA macromolecule, the two strands are complementary and antiparallel. The twisting of the DNA double helix is attributed to the tight packing of DNA bases and base-stacking.
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The results of the Meselson-Stahl experiments relied on all of the following except____.
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The fact that DNA is the genetic material
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After observing the results of one round of replication, the scientists obtained results from a second round. The purpose of one additional round of replication was to ____.
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distinguish betweenness-conservative and dispersive replication.
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What would results from a third round of replication using the methods of Meselson and Stahl?
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One light band and one intermediate band.
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Helicase function?
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Binds at the replication fork and breaks H-bonds between bases.
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Topoisomerase function?
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Binds ahead of the replication fork and breaks covalent bonds in DNA backbone.
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Single-strand binding protein function?
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Prevents H-bonds between bases and binds after the replication fork.
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What makes up the protein component of a nucleosome?
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Two tetramers of histone proteins.
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What is the first order of chromatin packing?
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Coiling around nucleosomes.
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True/False. The second order of chromatin packing occurs when nucleosomes coil together to form a fiber that is 300 nm in diameter.
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True.
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What determines which DNA strand is the template strand, and therefore in which direction RNA polymerase II moves along the DNA?
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The specific sequence of bases along the DNA strands.
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What describes the process that takes place before a mature mRNA exits the nucleus?
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noncoding sequences called introns are placed by molecular complexes called spliceosomes. A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA. A poly-A tail (50-250 adenine nucleotides) is added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA.
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Which region of a tRNA molecule binds to amino acids?
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3' codon.
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What best describes the function of ammoniacal tRNA synthetase?
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It attaches a specific amino acid to a tRNA molecule.
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True/False. Each aminoacyl tRNA syntheses is specific for one amino acid and a small number of tRNAs.
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True.
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The Beadle and Tatum experiments were based on all of the following assumptions except that ____.
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Two strains of auxotrophic Neurospora that grow on minimal medium supplemented with biotin have mutations in the same gene.
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In the first round of screening, Beadle and Tatum plated spores on minimal medium. The purpose of this screen was to ____.
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Determine whether any auxotrophic mutants had been generated.
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What can be inferred from the Beadle ad Tatum experiments?
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For a mutation resulting in the production of a defective enzyme involved in a biosynthetic pathway, the compound preceding the corresponding step will accumulate.
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True/False. Tautomers of nucleotide bases are isomers that differ from each other in the location of one hydrogen atom in the molecule.
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True.
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Which nucleotide will base-pair with the enol form of 5-bromouracil?
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Guanine.
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When event could result in a frameshift mutation?
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base deletion
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What are the consequences of having pyrimidine dimers in DNA?
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These dimers distort the DNA structure and result in errors during DNA replication.
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True/False. Thymine dimers can be repaired by Photoreactive Repair or Nucleotide Excision Repair.
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True.
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True statement regarding Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER) and Base Excision Repair (BER).
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Both NER and BER involved the removal of one or more damaged bases by a nuclease.
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True/False. All compounds that have been found to be mutagenic in the Ames test are also carcinogenic.
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False. The Ames test is used as a preliminary screening tool. Not all compounds that give a positive Ames test are carcinogenic.
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Why are liver extracts used in the Ames test?
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Liver enzymes may activate some innocuous compounds, making them mutagenic.
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Which bacteria grow on the agar plate if the Ames test is positive?
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his+ prototrophs.