MCAT Kaplan Quicksheets (Full Version)

25 July 2022
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neurons
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[biology and behavior] motor (efferent); interneurons; sensory (afferent)
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pns
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[biology and behavior] rest & digest
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sns
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[biology and behavior] fight or flight
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forebrain
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[biology and behavior] contains thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, and cerebral cortex
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midbrain
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[biology and behavior] contains inferior and superior colliculi
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hindbrain
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[biology and behavior] contains cerebellum, medulla oblongata, and reticular formation
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thalamus
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[biology and behavior] relay station for sensory information
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hypothalamus
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[biology and behavior] maintains homeostasis and integrates the endocrine system through the hypophyseal portal system (connected to the anterior pituitary)
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basal ganglia
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[biology and behavior] smoothens movements and helps maintain postural stability
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limbic system
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[biology and behavior] controls emotion and memory; contains the septal nuclei, amygdala, hippocampus, and fornix
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septal nuclei
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[biology and behavior] structure dealing with pleasure-seeking
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amygdala
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[biology and behavior] structure dealing with fear and aggression
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hippocampus
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[biology and behavior] structure dealing with memory
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fornix
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[biology and behavior] structure dealing with communication within limbic system
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frontal lobe
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[biology and behavior] executive function and motor functions
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parietal lobe
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[biology and behavior] sensations and spacial processing
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occipital lobe
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[biology and behavior] visual processing
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temporal lobe
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[biology and behavior] sound production and speech processing
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acetylcholine
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[biology and behavior] parasympathetic nervous system, muscle control neurotransmitter
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epinephrine, norepinephrine
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[biology and behavior] sympathetic nervous system neurotransmitters
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dopamine
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[biology and behavior] smooth movements, posture neurotransmitter
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seratonin
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[biology and behavior] mood, sleeping, eating neurotransmitter
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GABA
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[biology and behavior] brain "stabilization" neurotransmitter
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endorphins
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[biology and behavior] natural painkillers neurotransmitter
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nature v. nurture
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[biology and behavior] genetics v. environment
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sensation v. perception
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[sensation and perception] conversion of physical stimuli to neurological signals v. processing of sensory information
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threshold
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[sensation and perception] minimum stimulus that causes a change in signal transduction
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weber's law
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[sensation and perception] the JND is proportional to magnitude of stimulus with constant proportions
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signal detection
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[sensation and perception] theory that deals with non-sensory factors on perception (motives, expectations)
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response bias
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[sensation and perception] four outcomes: hit, miss, false alarm, correct negative
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adaption
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[sensation and perception] decrease in response over time
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visual pathway
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[sensation and perception] retina, optic nerve, optic chasm, optic tracts, lateral geniculate nucleus, visual radiations, visual cortex
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auditory pathway
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[sensation and perception] cochlea, vestibulocochlear nerve, medial geniculate nucleus, auditory cortex
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cochlea
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[sensation and perception] detects sound
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utricle, saccule
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[sensation and perception] detect linear acceleration
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semicircular canals
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[sensation and perception] detect angular acceleration
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smell
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[sensation and perception] detection of chemicals by olfactory chemoreceptors
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taste
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[sensation and perception] detection of dissolved compounds by taste buds
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somatosensation
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[sensation and perception] detection of pressure, vibration, pain, modalities
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kinesthetic sense
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[sensation and perception] detection of body in space
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bottom-up processing
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[sensation and perception] recognition of objects by parallel processing, feature detection (slower)
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top-down processing
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[sensation and perception] recognition of objects by memories and expectations (faster)
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gestalt principles
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[sensation and perception] ways the brain infers missing parts
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habituation
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[learning and memory] becoming used to a stimulus
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dishabituation
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[learning and memory] when a second stimulus intervenes, causing resensitization
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observational learning
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[learning and memory] learning by watching others
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associative learning
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[learning and memory] learning by pairing behaviors and consequences
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classical conditioning
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[learning and memory] a form of associative learning where neutral stimulus becomes associated with an unconditioned stimulus
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operant conditioning
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[learning and memory] a form of associative learning where behavior is modified by reinforcement or punishment
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awake
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] beta and alpha EEG waves, able to perceive, process, etc
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stage 1 of consciousness
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] theta EEG waves, light sleep
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stage 2 of consciousness
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] theta EEG waves, sleep spindles and K complexes
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stages 3 and 4 of consciousness
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] delta EEG waves, dreams, memory consolidation, sleep disorders
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REM sleep
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] beta EEG waves, appears awake, but dreaming, sleep disorders
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dyssomnia
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] sleep disorder classification dealing with amount or timing of sleep
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parasomnia
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] sleep disorder classification dealing with odd behaviors during sleep
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depressants
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] stimulate sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety
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stimulants
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] stimulate arousal
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opiates (opioids)
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] stimulate decreased pain perception and euphoria
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hallucinogens
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] stimulate distortions of reality and fantasy
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sensory memory
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] memory that lasts less than a second
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short-term (working) memory
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] memory that lasts less than a minute
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long-term memory
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] memory that lasts a lifetime, broken up into explicit (conscious) and implicit (unconscious) memory
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explicit (conscious) memory
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] aka declarative memory, broken up into episodic memory (events) and semantic memory (concepts and facts)
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encoding
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] putting new information into memory
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semantic network
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] network that store facts, retrieval is based on priming interconnected nodes of this network
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piaget's stages of cognitive development
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] include sensorimotor stage, pre operational stage, concrete operational stage, formal operational stage
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heuristics
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] "rules of thumb", assist in decision making
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selective attention
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] type of attention where you can pay attention and also determine if other things require attention also
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divided attention
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] type of attention where you pay attention to multiple things at a time through automatic processing
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wernicke's area
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] language comprehension
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broca's area
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] speech production
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broca's aphasia
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] each word requires great effort to generate
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arcuate fasciculus
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] connects broca's and wernicke's areas
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conduction aphasia
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[cognition, consciousness, and language] cannot repeat words
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extrinsic motivation
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] motivation based on external circumstances
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intrinsic motivation
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] motivation based on internal drive or perception
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instinct motivation theory (IMT)
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory that states that motivation is innate, fixed patterns of behavior
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arousal motivation theory (AMT)
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory that states that motivation is the state of being awake and reactive to stimuli, Yerkes-Dodson law
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yerkes-dodson
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] law that states that optimal performance happens at mid-arousal (too high = anxious, too low = too little interest)
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drive reduction
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory that states that people act to relieve internal states of tension
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maslow's hierarchy of needs
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] prioritizes needs into 5 categories (from highest to lowest priority) : physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, self-esteem, and self-actualization
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seven universal emotions
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, anger
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james-lange (JL)
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory of emotion where the first response is nervous system arousal and the second is conscious emotion
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cannon-bard (CB)
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory of emotion where the first response is nervous system arousal and conscious emotion and the second is action
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schachter-singer (SS)
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] theory of emotion where the first response is nervous system arousal and cognitive appraisal and the second is conscious emotion
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primary appraisal
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] classifying something as either stressful, benign-positive, or irrelevant
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secondary appraisal
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] determining whether someone can cope with stress
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general adaption syndrome
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[motivation, emotion, and stress] alarm, resistance, and exhaustion are the 3 stages
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schizophrenia
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[psychological disorders] psychotic disorder where reality is distorted
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major depressive disorder
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[psychological disorders] at least 1 major depressive episode
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pervasive depressive disorder
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[psychological disorders] a depressed mood for at least 2 years
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seasonal affective disorder
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[psychological disorders] major depressive disorder with seasonal onset (depression in winter)
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bipolar I disorder
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[psychological disorders] at least 1 manic episode
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bipolar II disorder
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[psychological disorders] at least 1 manic episode and at least 1 hypomanic episode
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cyclothymic disorder
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[psychological disorders] hypomanic episodes with dysthymia
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generalized anxiety disorder
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[psychological disorders] constant disproportionate and persistent worry
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specific phobias
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[psychological disorders] irrational fears of specific objects
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social anxiety disorder
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[psychological disorders] anxiety from social situations
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agoraphobia
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[psychological disorders] fear of places where its hard to escape
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panic disorder
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[psychological disorders] recurrent attacks of intense, overwhelming fear (and may lead to agoraphobia)
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obsessive-compulsive disorder
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[psychological disorders] obsessions and compulsions
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body dysmorphic disorder
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[psychological disorders] unrealistic negative evaluation of one's self/body
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dissociative amnesia
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[psychological disorders] inability to recall past experience
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dissociative identity disorder
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[psychological disorders] 2+ personalities/identities
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depersonalization (derealization) disorder
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[psychological disorders] detachment from body/environment
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freud's stages of psychosexual development
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[formation of identity] conscious, preconscious, unconscious; superego, ego, id (glacier); based on tensions caused by the libido (sexual desire), failure at any stage = fixation
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erickson's stages of psychosocial development
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[formation of identity] trust v mistrust, autonomy v shame, initiative v guilt, industry v inferiority, identity v role confusion, intimacy v isolation, generativety v stagnation, integrity v despair
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kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning development
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[formation of identity] includes 6 stages divided into 3 phases : pre conventional, conventional, and post conventional
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vygotsky's theory of cultural and biosocial development
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[formation of identity] describes the development of language, culture, and skills
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psychoanalytic
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[personality] perspective that personality results from unconscious urges and desires; freud said id, superego, and ego, jung said collective unconscious and archetypes
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humanistic
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[personality] perspective that focuses on people's internal feelings as they strive towards happiness; maslow said hierarchy of needs, rogers said unconditional positive regard
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type and trait
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[personality] theory that states that personality can be described as a number of traits that carry behaviors
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eysenck's three major traits
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[personality] psychoticism (agressiveness), extraversion (life of the party), neuroticism (negative)
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big five traits
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[personality] openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism (OCEAN)
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somatic symptom disorder
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[personality] at least one somatic symptom that causes disproportionate concern
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illness anxiety disorder
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[personality] stressin about coming down with a medical condition
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conversion disorder
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[personality] unexplained symptoms affecting motor/sensory functions
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type a personality
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[personality] odd, eccentric, "weird" personality
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type b personality
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[personality] dramatic, emotional, "wild" personality
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type c personality
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[personality] anxious, fearful, "worried" personality
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social facilitation
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] when someone performs either better or worse around others
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deindividualization
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] the loss of self-awareness in a group
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bystander effect
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] when someone is less likely to respond to a person in need when in a group
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peer pressure
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] social influence from one person to another
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group polarization
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] decisions become more extreme in a group
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groupthink
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] decisions made based on the group's ideas and nothing outside of it
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assimilation
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] when one culture melts into another
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multiculturism
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] when multiple cultures live in one place for increased diversity
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subculture
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] one group distinguishes itself from the primary culture to which it belongs
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socialization
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] to develop "norms"
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stigma
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[social processes, attitudes, and behavior] disapproval of a person because of differences
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display rules
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[social interaction] unspoken rules that govern expression of emotion
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dramaturgical
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[social interaction] approach of creating an image for yourself like actors do
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fundamental attribution error
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[social perception and behavior] bias toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational ones
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ethnocentrism
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[social perception and behavior] judging other cultures based on your own cultures values (in-group v out-group)
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functionalism
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[social structure and demographics] function of each component of society
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conflict theory
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[social structure and demographics] theory that shows how power differentials are created and maintain control
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demographics
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[social structure and demographics] the "statistical arm of society"
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demographic transition
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[social structure and demographics] an increase or decrease in society bc of birth or death rates, due to industrialization
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incidence
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[social stratification] (new cases) / (pop at risk) * time
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prevalence
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[social stratification] (total cases) / (pop at risk) * time
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morbidity
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[social stratification] degree of illness associated with a disease
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mortality
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[social stratification] deaths associated with a disease
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nucleus
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[the cell] organelle that contains all the genetic material necessary for replication of the cell
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mitochondrion
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[the cell] location of many metabolic processes and atp production (organelle)
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lysosomes
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[the cell] membrane-bound structures containing hydrolytic enzymes capable of breaking down many different substrates
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rough er
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[the cell] interconnected membranous structure with ribosomes studding the outside; site of synthesis of proteins destined for insertion into a membrane
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smooth er
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[the cell] interconnected membranous structure where lipid synthesis and detoxification occurs
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golgi apparatus
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[the cell] membrane-bound sacs where posttranslational modification of proteins occurs
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peroxisomes
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[the cell] organelles containing hydrogen peroxide; site of beta-oxidation of very long chain fatty acids
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phospholipid bilayer
phospholipid bilayer
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[the cell] made up of cholesterol and embedded proteins; hydrophilic phosphate heads on the exterior, hydrophobic fatty acids on the interior
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cell theory
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[the cell] contains 4 basic tenants : all living things are composed of cells, the cell is the basic functional unit of life, cells arise only from preexisting cells, cells carry genetic information in the form of dna (passed from parent to daughter cell)
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cocci
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[the cell] spherical bacteria
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bacilli
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[the cell] rod-shaped bacteria
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spirilli
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[the cell] spiral-shaped bacteria
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gram-positive bacteria
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[the cell] bacteria that has large amounts of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
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gram-negative bacteria
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[the cell] bacteria that has smaller amounts of peptidoglycan in the cell wall, along with lipopolysaccharides
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prokaryotic flagella
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[the cell] has a basal body that acts as a motor
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binary fission
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[the cell] cell division for prokaryotes; circular chromosome replicates and attaches to the cell wall, plasma membrane and cell wall grow along the midline, forming daughter cells
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cell division
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[reproduction] g1, s, g2, m, mitosis, meiosis (I and II)
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g1 phase
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[reproduction] cell division phase where cell increases its organelles and cytoplasm
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s phase
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[reproduction] cell division phase where dna is replicated
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g2 phase
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[reproduction] cell division phase where cell increases its organelles and cytoplasm (same as g1)
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m phase
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[reproduction] cell division phase where cell actually divides into 2
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mitosis
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[reproduction] prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (PMAT)
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meiosis
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[reproduction] PMAT * 2; occurs in spermatogenesis (sperm formation) and oogenesis (egg formation)
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meiosis I
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[reproduction] 2 pairs of sister chromatids form tetrads and crossing over leads to genetic recombination during prophase I, homologous chromosomes separate during metaphase I
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meiosis II
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[reproduction] identical to mitosis, but without replication
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early development
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[reproduction] cleavage, implantation, gastrulation, neurulation
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cleavage
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[reproduction] first stage of early development; mitotic divisions
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implantation
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[reproduction] second stage of early development; embryo implants during blastula stage
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gastrulation
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[reproduction] third stage of early development; ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm form
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neurulation
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[reproduction] fourth stage of early development; germ layers develop a nervous system
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ectoderm
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[reproduction] "attack"oderm; nervous system, lens of eye, inner ear
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endoderm
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[reproduction] "endernal" organs; lining of digestive tracts, lungs, liver, pancreas
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mesoderm
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[reproduction] "means"oderm; muscle, skeleton, circulatory system, gonads, kidney
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liver
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[homeostasis] it's roles in homeostasis include: 1. gluconeogenesis, 2. processing of nitrogenous waste (urea), 3. detoxification of wastes/toxins, 4. storage of iron and vitamin a, 5. synthesis of bile and blood proteins, 6. beta-oxidation of fatty acids to ketones, 7. interconversion of carbs, fats, and aa's
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layers of the skin
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[homeostasis] stratum comeum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basalis (come, let's get sun burnt)
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osmoregulation
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[homeostasis] filtration in the glomerulus (passive), secretion of acids, bases, and ions from intestinal fluid to filtrate, reabsorption (essential substances from filtrate to blood; passive and active)
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aldosterone
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[homeostasis] stimulates na+ reabsorption, k+ and h+ secretion, increasing water reabsorption/blood volume/blood pressure
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antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)
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[homeostasis] increases collecting duct's permeability to water to increase water reabsorption; secreted by posterior pituitary with high solute concentration in blood
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kidneys
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[homeostasis] regulate salt and water concentrations in the blood; functional unit is the nephron
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direct hormones
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[endocrine system] hormones that directly stimulate organs
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tropic hormones
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[endocrine system] hormones that stimulate other glands
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secondary messengers
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[endocrine system] peptides act via
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hormone binding
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[endocrine system] steroids act via
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secondary messengers or hormone binding
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[endocrine system] amino acids act via
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anterior pituitary
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[endocrine system] fsh, lh, acth, tsh, prolactin, endorphins, gh (FLAT PEG); come from the
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posterior pituitary (hypothalamus)
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[endocrine system] oxytocin, adh; come from the
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thyroid
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[endocrine system] thyroid hormones, calcitonin; come from the
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adrenal cortex
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[endocrine system] glucocorticoids, mineralcorticoids; come from the
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adrenal medulla
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[endocrine system] epinephrine, norepinephrine; come from the
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pancreas
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[endocrine system] glucagon, insulin, somatostatin; come from the
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testes
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[endocrine system] testosterone; comes from the
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ovary
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[endocrine system] estrogen, progesterone; come from the
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pineal gland
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[endocrine system] melatonin; comes from the
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heart
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[endocrine system] atrial natriuretic peptide; comes from the
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thymus
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[endocrine system] thymosin; comes from the
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menstrual cycle
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[endocrine system] follicular, ovulation, luteal, menstruation
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follicular
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[endocrine system] first stage of the menstrual cycle, fsh causes growth of a follicule
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ovulation
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[endocrine system] second stage of the menstrual cycle, lh causes follicle to release egg
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luteal
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[endocrine system] third stage of the menstrual cycle, corpus luteum forms
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menstruation
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[endocrine system] fourth and final stage of the menstrual cycle, endometrial lining sheds
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neuron
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[nervous system] the functional unit of the nervous system
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resting potential
resting potential
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[nervous system] 3 na+ pumped out for ever 2 k+ pumped in
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action potential
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[nervous system] stimulus acts on the neuron, depolarizing the cell membrane
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impulse propagation
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[nervous system] depolarization (Na+ in) and repolarization (K+ out) along the nerve axon
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the synapse
the synapse
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[nervous system] at the synaptic knob, voltage-gated ca2+ channels open, sending ca2+ into the cell; vesicles then fuse with the presynaptic membrane sending the neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft; the neurotransmitter then binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane, triggering depolarization
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rest
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[nervous system] all gates open
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depolarization
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[nervous system] na+ gates open
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repolarization
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[nervous system] na+ gates inactive, k+ gates open
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hyper polarization
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[nervous system] all gates closed
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sarcomere
sarcomere
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[musculoskeletal system] the contractile unit of fibers in skeletal muscle; has thin actin and thick myosin filaments
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muscle contraction
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[musculoskeletal system] includes initiation, sarcomere shortening, and relaxation
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contraction initiation
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[musculoskeletal system] when depolarization of a neuron leads to an action potential
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sarcomere shortening
sarcomere shortening
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[musculoskeletal system] when the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases ca2+ which binds to troponin and the actin filament, tropomyosin shifts, exposing myosin-binding sites, myosin binds, atpase activity allows myosin to pull thin filaments towards the center of the h zone, and then atp causes dissociation
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contraction relaxation
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[musculoskeletal system] when ca2+ is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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osteoblasts
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[musculoskeletal system] build bone
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osteoclasts
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[musculoskeletal system] breaks down bone
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bone reformation
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[musculoskeletal system] when inorganic ions are absorbed from the blood for use in bone
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bone resorption
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[musculoskeletal system] when inorganic ions are released into the blood
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the heart
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[circulation]
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three circulation portal systems
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[circulation] liver (hepatic), kidney, and brain (hypophyseal); blood travels through an extra capillary bed before returning to the heart
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foramen ovale
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[circulation] connects right and left atria in fetal circulation
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ductus arteriosus
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[circulation] connects pulmonary artery to aorta in fetal circulation
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ductus venosus
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[circulation] connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava, connecting umbilical circulation to central circulation in fetal circulation
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plasma
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[circulation] aqueous mix of nutrients, wastes, hormones, blood proteins, gases, and salts
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erythrocytes
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[circulation] red blood cells; carries oxygen
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hemoglobin
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[circulation] has four subunits that carry o2 and co2, iron controls binding and releasing
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oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation
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[circulation] increased heat/co2 pressure, decreased pH, bohr effect
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leukocytes
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[circulation] white blood cells; function in immunity
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platelets
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[circulation] release thromboplastin, ca2+, via k, which converts inactive prothrombin to active thrombin, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, which surrounds blood cells to form the clot
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antigens
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[circulation] located on the surface of blood cells
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blood type a
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[circulation] rbc antigen a, anti-b antibody, donates to a and ab, receives from a and o
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blood type b
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[circulation] rbc antigen b, anti-a antibody, donates to b and ab, receives from b and o
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blood type ab
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[circulation] rbc antigen a and b, no antibody, donates to only ab, received from all
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blood type o
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[circulation] no rbc antigen, anti-a and b antibodies, donates to all, reviews from only o
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gas exchange
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[respiration] occurs across the thin wall of alveoli; deoxygenated blood enters pulmonary capillaries that surround the alveoli; o2 from inhaled air diffuses into capillaries where it binds with hemoglobin and returns to the heart; co2 from tissues diffuses from capillaries to alveoli and is exhaled
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fetal respiration
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[respiration] gas and nutrient exchange occurs across the placenta; fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for o2
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lipid digestion
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[digestion] when chyme is present, the duodenum secretes cck (cholecystokinin) hormone into the blood, which stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile and promotes satiety; bile made in the liver emulsifies fat in the small intestine but isn't an enzyme; lipase is an enzyme made in the pancreas that hydrolyzes lipids (also in the small intestine)
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salivary amylase
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[digestion] produced in the salivary glands, functions in the mouth; starch --> maltose
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pancreatic amylase
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[digestion] produced in the pancreas, functions in the small intestine; starch --> maltose
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maltase
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[digestion] produced in the intestinal glands, functions in the small intestine; maltose --> 2 glucoses
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sucrase
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[digestion] produced in the intestinal glands, functions in the small intestine; sucrose --> glucose/fructose
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lactase
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[digestion] produced in the intestinal glands, functions in the small intestine; lactose --> glucose/galactose
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pepsin
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[digestion] produced in gastric glands (chief cells), functions in the stomach; hydrolyzes peptide bonds
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trypsin
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[digestion] produced in the pancreas, functions in the stomach; hydrolyzes peptide bonds and converts chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
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chymotrypsin
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[digestion] produced in the pancreas, functions in the small intestine; hydrolyzes peptide bonds
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carboxypeptidases a and b
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[digestion] produced in the pancreas, functions in the small intestine; hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at c-end
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aminopeptidase
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[digestion] produced in the intestinal gland, functions in the small intestine; hydrolyzes terminal peptide bond at n-end
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dipeptidase
answer
[digestion] produced in the intestinal gland, functions in the small intestine; hydrolyzes pairs of amino acids
question
enteropeptidase
answer
[digestion] produced in the intestinal gland, functions in the small intestine; converts trypsinogen to trypsin
question
humoral immunity
answer
[immune system] specific defense; active and passive immunity; b-lymphocytes (memory and plasma cells)
question
memory cells
answer
[immune system] remember antigen to speed up secondary response
question
plasma cells
answer
[immune system] make and release antibodies - IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE
question
active immunity
answer
[immune system] when antibodies are produced during an immune response
question
passive immunity
answer
[immune system] when antibodies are produced by one organism and transferred to another
question
cell-mediated immunity
answer
[immune system] specific defense; t-lymphocytes (cytotoxic t-cells, helper t-cells, memory cells, suppressor t-cells)
question
cytotoxic t-cells
answer
[immune system] destroy cells directly
question
helper t-cells
answer
[immune system] activate b and t-cells and macrophages by secreting lymphokines
question
suppressor t-cells
answer
regulate b and t-cells to decrease anti-antigen activity
question
nonspecific immune response
answer
[immune system] includes skin, macrophages, inflammatory response, passages lined with cilia, and interferons (proteins that help prevent virus spreading)
question
lymph vessels
answer
[immune system] meet at the thoracic duct in the upper chest and neck, draining into the left subclavian vein of the cardiovascular system
question
lacteals
answer
[immune system] collect fats by absorbing chylomicrons in the small intestine
question
lymph
answer
[immune system] excess interstitial fluid that vessels carry
question
lymph nodes
answer
[immune system] swellings of vessels with phagocytic cells; they remove particles from lymph
question
law of segregation
answer
[classical genetics] homologous alleles(chromosomes) separate so that each gamete has 1 copy of each gene
question
1:2:1, 3:1
answer
[classical genetics] if both parents are Rr, the alleles separate to give a genotypic ratio of ... and a phenotypic ratio of ...
question
law of independent assortment
answer
[classical genetics] alleles of unlinked genes assort independently in meiosis
question
9:3:3:1
answer
[classical genetics] AaBb parents will produce AB, Ab, aB, and ab gametes and the phenotypic ratio for this cross is ...
question
unlink genes (prophase 1)
answer
[classical genetics] crossing over during meiosis I can
question
far apart
answer
[classical genetics] genes are most likely unlinked when
question
1 map unit
answer
[classical genetics] 1% recombination frequency is
question
12%
answer
[classical genetics] x and z frequency
question
8%
answer
[classical genetics] x and y frequency
question
4%
answer
[classical genetics] y and z frequency
question
autosomal recessive
answer
[classical genetics] pattern of inheritance that skips generations
question
autosomal dominant
answer
[classical genetics] pattern of inheritance that appears in ever generation
question
x-linked
answer
[classical genetics] sex-linked pattern of inheritance where there is no male-to-male transmission and more males are affected
question
hardy-weinberg equilibrium
hardy-weinberg equilibrium
answer
[evolution] when frequencies of a population are stable; no mutations, large population, random mating, no migration, equal reproductive success
question
nucleic acids
answer
[molecular genetics] basic unit is the nucleotide
question
deoxyribose
answer
dna's sugar
question
ribose
answer
rna's sugar
question
purines (A, G)
answer
double-ringed bases
question
pyrimidines (C, U, T)
answer
single-ringed bases
question
structural genes
answer
[molecular genetics] genes that have dna that codes for protein
question
operator gene
answer
[molecular genetics] gene with the repressor binding site
question
promotor gene
answer
[molecular genetics] rna poly I's 1st binding site (it's a kind of gene)
question
inducible systems
answer
[molecular genetics] need an inducer for transcription to occur
question
repressible systems
answer
[molecular genetics] need a compressor to inhibit transcription
question
point mutations
answer
[molecular genetics] one nucleotide is substituted by another; they are silent if the sequence of amino acids doesn't change
question
frameshift mutations
answer
[molecular genetics] insertions or deletions of nucleotides shift reading frame; protein doesn't form, or is non-funcitonal
question
viruses
answer
[molecular genetics] acellular structures of dna or rna in a protein coat
question
lytic cycle
answer
[molecular genetics] when a virus kills the host cell
question
lysogenic cycle
answer
[molecular genetics] when a virus enters host genome
question
plasmids
answer
[genetics of prokaryotic cells] extragenomic material within bacteria
question
episomes
answer
[genetics of prokaryotic cells] plasmids that can be integrated into the genome within bacteria
question
transformation
answer
[genetics of prokaryotic cells] occurs when a bacterium acquires genetic material and inserts it into the host cell genome (antibiotic resistance)
question
conjugation
answer
[genetics of prokaryotic cells] the bacterial form of mating; 2 cells forming a cytoplasmic bridge (made of sex-pili) that allows them to transfer genetic material (one-way)
question
transduction
answer
[genetics of prokaryotic cells] occurs when a bacteriophage acquires genetic material from a host cell, the material is packaged with viral genetic material, and the bacteriophage then infects another bacterium
question
chiral, S, amphoteric
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] all amino acids are BLANK (L), have the BLANK configuration, and are BLANK (can react as a base or an acid)
question
nonpolar amino acids
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, methionine, proline (GAV LIMP)
question
polar amino acids
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] serine, threonine, asparagine, glutamine, cysteine (STN QC)
question
aromatic amino acids
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] tyrosine, tryptophan, phenylalanine (YWF)
question
acidic amino acids (-)
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] glutamic acid, aspartic acid (ED)
question
basic amino acids (+)
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] lysine, arginine, histidine (RHK)
question
low pH (acidic)
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] amino acids are fully protonized at
question
neutral pH
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] amino acids are zwitterions at
question
high pH (basic)
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] amino acids are fully deprotonated at
question
pI (isoelectric point)
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] averaging pKa values that refer to protonation/deprotonation gives you the
question
peptide bonds
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] formation is a condensation (dehydration) reaction with a nucleophilic amino group attacking and electrophilic carbonyl; broken by hydrolysis
question
primary structure
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] linear sequence of amino acids (like letters)
question
secondary structure
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] local structure, stabilized by hydrogen bonding; alpha helices and beta pleated sheets (like words)
question
tertiary structure
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] three-dimensional structure stabilized by hydrophobic interactions, salt bridges, hydrogen bonding, and disulfide bonds (like sentences)
question
quaternary structure
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] interactions between subunits (like paragraphs)
question
denaturation
answer
[amino acids, peptides, and proteins] heat and solutes cause
question
structural proteins
answer
[nonenzymatic protein function and protein analysis] proteins that are fibrous; collagen, elastin, keratin, actin, tubulin (CEKAT)
question
motor proteins
answer
[nonenzymatic protein function and protein analysis] proteins that can generate force through a conformational change; myosin, kinesin, dynein (MKD)
question
binding proteins
answer
[nonenzymatic protein function and protein analysis] proteins that bind a substrate either to sequester it in the body or to hold its concentration at a steady state
question
cell adhesion molecules (CAM's)
answer
[nonenzymatic protein function and protein analysis] molecules that bind cells to other cells or surfaces; cadherins, integrins, selectins (CIS)
question
antibodies
antibodies
answer
[nonenzymatic protein function and protein analysis] aka immunoglobulins; target antigens
question
ion channels
ion channels
answer
[biosignaling] channels that can be used to regulate ion flow into or out of a cell; 3 main types : ungated, voltage-gated, and ligand-gated
question
enzyme-linked receptors
enzyme-linked receptors
answer
[biosignaling] receptors that participate in cell-signaling through extracellular ligand binding and initiation of secondary messenger cascades
question
g protein-coupled receptors
g protein-coupled receptors
answer
[biosignaling] receptors that have a membrane-bound protein associated with a trimeric G protein and also initiate secondary messenger systems
question
ligases
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that join 2 large biomolecules
question
isomerases
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that catalyze interconversion of isomers
question
lyases
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that cleave without water
question
hydrolases
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that cleave with water
question
oxidoreductases
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions
question
transferases
answer
[enzymes] these move functional groups from one molecule to another
question
enzymes
answer
[enzymes] these lower activation energy and rate of a reaction, but NOT gibbs free energy or enthalpy (because those deal with final equilibrium position)
question
saturation kinetics
answer
[enzymes] as substrate concentration increases, reaction rate increases until it hits a max; v = vmax[S] / km + [S]; at 1/2 Vmax, [S] = km
question
michaelis-menten kinetics
michaelis-menten kinetics
answer
[enzymes]
question
lineweaver-burk kinetics
lineweaver-burk kinetics
answer
[enzymes]
question
cooperative enzymes
answer
[enzymes] enzymes that show a sigmoidal curve on a michaelis-menten plot
question
competitive enzymes
answer
[enzymes] bind at the active site, increase Km, and do not change Vmax
question
noncompetitive enzymes
answer
[enzymes] bind at the allosteric site, do not change Km, and decrease Vmax
question
mixed enzymes
answer
[enzymes] bind at the allosteric site, can increase or decrease Km, and decrease Vmax
question
uncompetitive enzymes
answer
[enzymes] bind at the allosteric site, decrease Km, and decrease Vmax
question
carbohydrates
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] organized by number of carbons and functional groups
question
trioses, tetroses
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] 3 carbon sugars, 4 carbon sugars
question
aldoses
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] sugars with aldehydes
question
ketoses
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] sugars with ketones
question
d-sugars
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] sugars with last carbon with -OH group on the right
question
l-sugars
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] sugars with last carbon with -OH group on the left
question
enantiomers
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] non-superimposable mirror images; l-sugars and d-sugars are
question
diasteriomers
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] differ at one carbon at least; make up epimers (differ at chiral carbon) and anomers (differ at anomeric carbon)
question
anomeric carbon
anomeric carbon
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] new chiral center in a ring closure; contained the carbonyl in straight chain form
question
alpha anomer
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] -OH on anomeric carbon trans to functional group
question
beta anomer
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] -OH on anomeric carbon cis to functional group
question
fructose
fructose
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function]
question
glucose
glucose
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function]
question
galactose
galactose
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function]
question
mannose
mannose
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function]
question
monosaccharides
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] oxidation-reduction reactions, esterification, and glycoside formation are all reactions of BLANK
question
monosaccharides
answer
fructose, glucose, galactose, mannose
question
disaccharides
answer
sucrose, lactose, maltose
question
polysaccharides
answer
cellulose, starch, glucose
question
glycoside formation
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] when one anomeric carbon links to another sugar; the basis for building complex carbohydrates
question
cellulose
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] polysaccharide; plant cell walls, fiber
question
starches (amylose and amylopectin)
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] polysaccharides; energy storage form for plants
question
glycogen
answer
[carbohydrate structure and function] polysaccharide; energy storage form for animals
question
nucleosides
answer
[dna and biotechnology] contain a five-carbon sugar bound to a nitrogenous base WITHOUT phosphate groups
question
nucleotides
answer
[dna and biotechnology] contain a five-carbon sugar bound to a nitrogenous base AND phosphate groups; adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
question
watson-crick model
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dna model where backbone is alternating sugar and phosphate groups; always read 5' to 3'; 2 antiparallel strands wound in a double helix; purines pair with pyrimidines
question
chargaff's rules
answer
[dna and biotechnology] rules that state that purines and pyrimidines are equal in number (A=T, C=G)
question
46
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dna is organized into BLANK chromosomes in human cells
question
nucleosomes, histone protein (H1)
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dna is wound around histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, H4) to form BLANK which are stabilized by another BLANK
question
chromatin
chromatin
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dna and its associated histones make up
question
heterochromatin
heterochromatin
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dense, transcriptionally silent dna
question
euchromatin
euchromatin
answer
[dna and biotechnology] less dense, transcriptionally active dna
question
telomeres
answer
[dna and biotechnology] the ends of chromosomes; high G-C content to prevent unraveling
question
centromeres
answer
[dna and biotechnology] in the middle of the chromosome, hold sister chromatids together until they're separated in the anaphase; high G-C content to prevent unraveling
question
prokaryotic dna replication
answer
[dna and biotechnology] one origin of replication per chromosome, helicase unwinds dna strands, then stabilized by single-stranded dan-binding protein, rna primers synthesized by primase, dna synthesized by dna poly III, rna primers removed by dna poly I, rna replaced with dna by dna poly I, okazaki fragments joined by dna ligase, positive supercoils removed by dna topoisomerase II, telomeres not synthesized
question
eukaryotic dna replication
answer
[dna and biotechnology] multiple origins of replications per chromosome, helicase unwinds dna strands, then synthesized by primase, dna synthesized by dna polymerases alpha and gamma, rna primers removed by range h, rna replaced with dna by dna poly gamma, okazaki fragments joined by dna ligase, positive supercoils removed by dna topoisomerase II, telomeres synthesized by telomerase
question
dna replication
answer
[dna and biotechnology] semi-conservative; one old parent strand with one new daughter strand is incorporated in each of the 2 new dna molecules
question
dna polymerase
answer
[dna and biotechnology] synthesizes new dna strands; reads template dna 3' to 5' and synthesizes new strand 5' to 3'
question
leading strand
answer
[dna and biotechnology] strand that requires only 1 primer and can then be synthesized continuously
question
lagging strand
answer
[dna and biotechnology] strand that requires many primers and is synthesized in discrete "okasaki" fragments
question
recombinant dna
answer
[dna and biotechnology] dna composed of nucleotides from two different sources
question
dna cloning
answer
[dna and biotechnology] a fragment of dna is introduced into a vector plasmid. restriction endonuclease cuts the fragment with the plasmid, leaving sticky ends which can bind. once replicated, bacterial cells can be used to create a protein or be lysed the isolate the fragment from the plasmid.
question
dna libraries
answer
[dna and biotechnology] large collections of known dna sequences; include genomic libraries and cdna libraries
question
genomic libraries
answer
[dna and biotechnology] libraries that contain large fragments of dna, including coding and non-coding regions of the genome. these cannot be used to create recombinant proteins or for gene therapy.
question
cdna libraries
answer
[dna and biotechnology] aka expression libraries; libraries that contain smaller fragments of dna which only include the exons of genes expressed by the sample tissue. these can be used to create recombinant proteins or for gene therapy.
question
hybridization
answer
[dna and biotechnology] the joining of complimentary base pair sequences
question
pcr
answer
[dna and biotechnology] making millions of copies of a dna sequence from a small hybridization sample
question
agarose gel electrophoresis
agarose gel electrophoresis
answer
[dna and biotechnology] separates dna molecules by size
question
southern blotting
answer
[dna and biotechnology] used to detect the presence and quantity of various dna strands in a sample
question
central dogma of biology
answer
[rna and the genetic code] dna --> rna --> proteins
question
start codon
answer
[rna and the genetic code] AUG
question
stop codons
answer
[rna and the genetic code] UAA, UAG, UGA
question
redundancy and wobble
answer
[rna and the genetic code] these allow mutations to occur without affecting the protein
question
point mutations
answer
[rna and the genetic code] silent , nonsense (truncation), missense, and frameshift mutations are all caused by...
question
silent mutations
answer
[rna and the genetic code] mutations that have no effect on protein whatsoever
question
nonsense mutations
answer
[rna and the genetic code] mutations that create a premature stop codon; aka truncation mutations
question
missense mutations
answer
[rna and the genetic code] mutations that produce a codon that codes for a different amino acid
question
frameshift mutations
answer
[rna and the genetic code] mutations that result from nucleotide addition or removal and change the reading frame of subsequent codons
question
rna v dna
answer
[rna and the genetic code] a ribose sugar v. a deoxyribose, a uricil v. a thymine, single-stranded v. double-stranded
question
mrna (messenger rna)
answer
[rna and the genetic code] carries the message from dna into the nucleus via transcription of the gene; later travels into the cytoplasm to be translated
question
trna (transfer rna)
answer
[rna and the genetic code] brings in amino acids; recognizes the codon on the mrna using its anticodon
question
rrna (ribosomal rna)
answer
[rna and the genetic code] makes up much of the ribosome; enzymatically active
question
transcription step 1
answer
[rna and the genetic code] helicase and topoisomerase unwind the dna double helix
question
transcription step 2
answer
[rna and the genetic code] rna poly II binds to TATA box in promotor region
question
transcription step 3
answer
[rna and the genetic code] hnrna is synthesized from dna template
question
posttranscriptional modifications
answer
[rna and the genetic code] 7-methylguanylate triphosphate cap added to 5' end, poly A tail added to 3' end, splicing done by spliceosome (introns removed and extrons ligated together); alternative splicing combines different eons to acquire different gene products
question
translation
answer
[rna and the genetic code] initiation, elongation, termination (all of this occurs in the ribosome)
question
posttranslational modifications
answer
[rna and the genetic code] folding by chaperones, formation of quaternary structure, cleavage of protein or signal sequences, covalent addition of other biomolecules (phosphorylation, glycosylation, prenylation)
question
operons (jacob-monod model)
operons (jacob-monod model)
answer
[rna and the genetic code] inducible or repressible clusters of genes transcribed as a single mrna (in prokaryotes)
question
transcription factors
answer
[rna and the genetic code] factors that search for promotor regions and enhancer regions in the dna
question
promoters
answer
[rna and the genetic code] are within 25bp's of transcription start site
question
enhancers
answer
[rna and the genetic code] are more than 25bp's from start site
question
osmotic pressure
osmotic pressure
answer
[biological membranes] the pressure applied to a pure solvent to prevent osmosis; related to the concentration of a solution (a colligative property)
question
passive transport
answer
[biological membranes] membrane transport that does not require atp because the molecule is moving from high concentration to low concentration
question
simple diffusion
answer
[biological membranes] no transporter (type of simple diffusion)
question
osmosis
answer
[biological membranes] diffusion of water (type of simple diffusion)
question
facilitated diffusion
answer
[biological membranes] uses transport proteins (type of simple diffusion)
question
active transport
answer
[biological membranes] membrane transport that uses atp (primary) or another ion gradient (secondary); secondary active transport can be further classified as symport or antiport
question
endocytosis, exocytosis
answer
[biological membranes] these are methods of engulfing material into cells or releasing material into the exterior of cells, both via the cell membrane
question
pinocytosis
answer
[biological membranes] ingestion of liquid into the cell from vesicles
question
phagocytosis
answer
[biological membranes] the ingestion of solid materials into the cell
question
glycolysis
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] occurs in the cytoplasm, does not require oxygen, yields 2 atp / glucose;
question
hexokinase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzyme in glycolysis; present in pancreatic beta-islet cells as part of the glucose sensor; responsive to insulin in the liver
question
hexokinase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzyme in glycolysis; traps glucose
question
pfk-1
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzyme in glycolysis; rate-limiting step
question
pfk-2
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzyme in glycolysis; produces f2,6-bp, which activates pfk-1
question
g3pdh
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzyme in glycolysis; produces nadh
question
3-phosphoglycerate kinase, pyruvate kinase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] important enzymes in glycolysis; both perform substrate-level phosphorylation
question
irreversible reaction enzymes
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] hexo(glucose)kinase, pfk-1, pyruvate kinase
question
lactate dehydrogenase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] nadh from glycolysis is oxidized aerobically by the electron transport chain and anaerobically by BLANK
question
pyruvate dehydrogenase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] converts pyruvate into acetyl-coA; stimulated by insulin, inhibited by acetyl-coA; yields 2 nadh / glucose molecule
question
citric acid cycle (cac)
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] takes place in the mitochondrial matrix; oxidizes acetyl-coA into co2 and generates nadh and fadh2 and gtp; yields 6 nadh, 2 fadh2 and 2 gtp / glucose molecule)
question
electron transport chain
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] takes place on the matrix-facing surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane; nadh donates electrons to the chain, which are passed from one complex to the next. reduction potentials increase down the chain until the electron ends up on oxygen with the highest reduction potential; nadh cannot cross inner membrane by itself so it must use either the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle or the malate-aspartate shuttle
question
proton-motive force (oxidative phosphorylation)
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] the electrochemical gradient produced by the etc across the inner mitochondrial membrane
question
chemiosmotic coupling (oxidative phosphorylation)
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] converting the energy that comes from the higher proton concentration in the inner membrane space (as opposed to the matrix) to atp
question
atp synthase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] generates atp from adp and inorganic phosphate
question
net energy yield (from carbohydrate metabolic processes)
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] 2 atp from glycolysis + 2 atp from cac + 25 atp from nadh + 3 atp from fadh2 = 30 - 32 atp / glucose molecule
question
glycogenesis
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] glycogen synthesis; the building of glycogen using glycogen synthase and branching enzyme
question
glycogen synthase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] creates an alpha 1,4, glycosidic links between glucose molecules. activated by insulin in liver and muscles; part of glycogenesis to build glycogen
question
branching enzyme
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] moves a block of olgioglucose from one chain and connects it as a branch using an alpha 1,6 glycosidic link; part of glycogenesis to build glycogen
question
glycogenolysis
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] glycogen breakdown using glycogen phosphorylase and debranching enzyme (opposite of glycogenesis)
question
glycogen phosphorylase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecules by breaking alpha 1,4 links; activated by glucagon in the liver to prevent low blood sugar; during exercise, it is activated by epinephrine and amp to provide glucose; part of glycogenolysis to breakdown glycogen
question
debranching enzyme
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] moves a block of oligoglucose from a branch and connects it to a chain using an alpha 1,4 link; part of glycogenolysis to breakdown glycogen
question
gluconeogenesis
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] opposite of glycolysis (same enzymes); mostly occurs in the liver, in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
question
pyruvate carboxylase, PEP carboxykinase
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] in gluconeogenesis, pyruvate kinase is bypassed by
question
f1,6bp
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] in gluconeogenesis, pfk-1 is bypassed by
question
g6p
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] in gluconeogenesis, hexokinase is bypassed by
question
pentose phosphate pathway
answer
[carbohydrate metabolism] generates nadph and sugars for biosynthesis; occurs in cytoplasm; main enzyme is g6pdh; activated by nadp+ and inhibited by nadph and insulin; yields 2 nadh and 2 atp
question
postprandial (absorptive) state
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] metabolic state where insulin secretion is high and anabolic metabolism prevails
question
postabsorptive (fasting) state
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] metabolic state where insulin secretion is low and glucagon and catecholamine secretion is high
question
prolonged fasting (starvation)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] metabolic state where glucagon and catecholamine secretion is dramatically high and most tissues rely on fatty acids
question
liver (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] maintains blood glucose through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; processes lipids, cholesterol, bile, urea, and toxins
question
adipose tissue (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] stores and releases lipids
question
resting muscle (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] converts carbohydrates as glycogen and uses free fatty acids for fuel
question
active muscle (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] may use anaerobic metabolism, oxidative phosphorylation, direct phosphorylation (creatine phosphate), or fatty acid oxidation
question
cardiac muscle (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] uses fatty acid oxidation
question
brain (metabolism)
answer
[bioenergetics and regulation of metabolism] uses glucose except in prolonged starvation where it uses ketolysis
question
lipid transport
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] transportation via chylomicrons, vldl, idl, ldl, and hdl
question
cholesterol metabolism
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] cholesterol may be obtained through dietary source or through synthesis in the liver; key enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis is hmg coa-reductase
question
palmitic acid
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] the only fatty acid that humans can synthesize; produced in the cytoplasm from acetyl-coa transport out of the mitochondria
question
fatty acid oxidation
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] occurs in the the mitochondria following transport by the carnitine shuttle via beta-oxidation
question
ketone bodies
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] form during a prolonged starvation state due to excess acetyl-coa in the liver (ketogenesis); ketolysis regenerates acetyl-coa for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues
question
protein catabolism
answer
[lipid and amino acid metabolism] protein digestion occurs in the small intestine; carbon skeletons of amino acids are used for energy though gluconeogenesis or keno body formation; amino groups are fed into the urea cycle for excretion
question
atomic weight
atomic weight
answer
[atomic structure] the average of the weighted masses of the naturally occurring isotopes of an element
question
the mole
answer
[atomic structure] a unit used to count particles, represented by avogadro's number; (mass of sample) / (molar mass)
question
isotopes
isotopes
answer
[atomic structure] multiple species of atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons for any given element
question
planck's quantum theory
answer
[atomic structure] energy emitted as electromagnetic radiation exists in discrete bundles called quanta
question
lyman series
answer
[atomic structure] the group of hydrogen emission lines corresponding to transitions between upper levels n>1 to n=1
question
absorbance spectrum
absorbance spectrum
answer
[atomic structure] characteristic energy bands that show where electrons absorb energy
question
heisenberg's uncertainty principle
answer
[atomic structure] it is impossible to know the position and momentum of an electron at the same time
question
n, shell, n
answer
[atomic structure] quantum number 1; denotation, character, value
question
l, subshell, 0 to n-1
answer
[atomic structure] quantum number 2; denotation, character, value
question
ml, orbital, -l to l
answer
[atomic structure] quantum number 3; denotation, character, value
question
ms, spin, -.5 or .5
answer
[atomic structure] quantum number 4; denotation, character, value
question
electron configuration
electron configuration
answer
[atomic structure]
question
hund's rule
hund's rule
answer
[atomic structure] orbitals are always filled so that there's a maximum of half full orbitals within each subshell
question
valence electrons
answer
[atomic structure] electrons on the outside energy shell that are responsible for bonding
question
top right
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] increasing electron affinity trend, towards the BLANK
question
top right
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] increasing ionization energy trend, towards the BLANK
question
bottom left
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] increasing atomic radius trend, towards the BLANK
question
bottom left
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] increasing metallic character trend, towards the BLANK
question
octet rule
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] an atom will bond until it fills its outermost shell, wants to have a configuration like the noble gases
question
lewis structure steps
lewis structure steps
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] 1. draw skeleton of the compound, 2. count all valence e's, 3. draw bonds bw central atom and others, 4. complete octets, 5. place any extra e-s on the central atom
question
formal charge
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] the charge an electron would have if all e-s were shared equally
question
polar covalent bond
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] a bond where e-s aren't shared equally, but pulled toward the more electronegative atom
question
bond dipoles, shape
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] molecules with non polar bonds will always be non polar. molecules with polar bonds may be polar or non polar depending on the orientation of the BLANK, or BLANK
question
180
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] in linear compounds, the angle between e- pairs is BLANK
question
120
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] in trigonal planar compunds, the angle between e- pairs is BLANK
question
109.5
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] in tetradhedral compunds, the angle between e- pairs is BLANK
question
90, 120, 180
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] in trigonal bipyramidal compounds, the angle between e- pairs is BLANK
question
90, 180
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] in octahedral compounds, the angle between e- pairs is BLANK
question
ligands
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] donor molecules that use coordinate covalent bonds
question
chelation
chelation
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] the central cation being bonded to the same ligand multiple times is referred to as BLANK
question
hydrogen bond
hydrogen bond
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] when the partial positive charge of a hydrogen atom interacts with the partial negative charge of electronegative atoms of nearby molecules
question
dipole-dipole interactions
dipole-dipole interactions
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] when polar molecules orient themselves so that the positive region of one molecule is next to the negative of another molecule
question
dispersion forces
dispersion forces
answer
[bonding and chemical interactions] when the electrons shared in a covalent bond are really located randomly throughout the orbital, causing transient polarization
question
combustion
combustion
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] where fuels (like a hydrocarbon) react with oxidants (like oxygen) to produce oxide and water
question
combination reaction
combination reaction
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] reaction where 2+ reactants form a product
question
decomposition reaction
decomposition reaction
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] reaction where a compound breaks down to 2+ substances (usually from heating or electrolysis)
question
single-displacement
single-displacement
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] reaction where an atom of one molecule is replaced by another
question
double-displacement
double-displacement
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] aka metathesis reactions; reaction where elements from 2+ compounds displace each other to form 2 new compounds
question
net ionic
net ionic
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] equation that shows only the compounds actually participating in the reaction
question
catalyst
answer
[compounds and stoichiometry] a substance that increase reaction rate without being consumed (by lowering the reaction rate)
question
rate = k[A]x[B]y
answer
[kinetics and equilibrium] rate law equation
question
Kc or Qc = [C]c[D]d/[A]a[B]b
answer
[kinetics and equilibrium] law of mass action; Aa + Bb = Cc + Dd
question
Keq
answer
[kinetics and equilibrium] > 1 = more products, < 1 = more reactants; = 1 = equilibrium
question
le chatlier's principle
answer
[kinetics and equilibrium] determines the direction in which the reaction will proceed when subject to stress (change in temp, concentration, pressure, etc)
question
law of conservation of energy
answer
[thermochemistry] law that dictates that energy cannot be created nor destroyed
question
isolated system
answer
[thermochemistry] a system that cannot exchange energy or matter with the environment
question
open system
answer
[thermochemistry] a system that can exchange both energy and matter with the environment
question
closed system
answer
[thermochemistry] a system that can exchange energy but not matter
question
isothermal process
answer
[thermochemistry] a process where the system's temperature remains constant
question
adiabatic process
answer
[thermochemistry] a process where no heat is exchanged
question
isobaric process
answer
[thermochemistry] a process where pressure remains constant
question
isovolumetric (isochoric) process
answer
[thermochemistry] a process where volume remains constant
question
calorimetry
answer
[thermochemistry] indicates conditions where heat changes are measured
question
Q = mc?T
answer
[thermochemistry] heat absorbed equation
question
state functions
answer
[thermochemistry] only the initial and final states matter; examples include pressure, temperature, density, volume, enthalpy, internal energy, entropy, free energy
question
enthalpy (?H)
answer
[thermochemistry] indicates heat changes at constant pressure
question
standard heat of formation
standard heat of formation
answer
[thermochemistry] the enthalpy change that would occur if one mole of a compound formed directly from its elements
question
standard heat of reaction
standard heat of reaction
answer
[thermochemistry] the enthalpy change that would occur if the reaction were carried out under standard conditions; PRODUCTS - REACTANTS
question
hess's law
answer
[thermochemistry] states that enthalpies of reactions are additive; the reverse of a reaction has the same enthalpy as the forward reaction
question
bond dissociation energy
answer
[thermochemistry] the average of the energy it takes to break a bond in one mole of gaseous molecules
question
bond enthalpy
answer
[thermochemistry] bonds broken (+) + bonds formed (-) =
question
entropy
answer
[thermochemistry] the distribution/randomness of a system
question
gibbs free energy
answer
[thermochemistry] a thermodynamic criterion for determining spontaneity of a reaction;
question
760 torr, 760 mmHg, 101,325 Pa
answer
[the gas phase] 1 atm =
question
p1v1 = p2v2
answer
[the gas phase] boyle's law
question
v1/t1 = v2/t2
answer
[the gas phase] charles's law
question
p1/t1 = p2/t2
answer
[the gas phase] gay-lussac's law
question
n1/v1 = n2/v2
answer
[the gas phase] avogadro's principle
question
p1v1/t1 = p2v2/t2
answer
[the gas phase] combined gas law
question
PV = nRT
answer
[the gas phase] ideal gas law
question
van der wall's equation of state
van der wall's equation of state
answer
[the gas phase] accounts for the deviations from ideality that occur when pressure, temperature, volume changes
question
Pa = PtXa
answer
[the gas phase] dalton's law of partial pressure; total pressure of a gaseous molecule = the sum of partial pressures of individual components
question
vRMS = ?(3RT / M)
answer
[the gas phase] root-mean-square speed
question
colligative properties
colligative properties
answer
[phases and phase changes] physical properties where only the number of particles matters, not their nature; usually associated with dilute solutions
question
?Tf = iKfm
answer
[phases and phase changes] freezing point depression equation
question
?Tb = iKbm
answer
[phases and phase changes] boiling point elevation equation
question
n = iMRT
answer
[phases and phase changes] osmotic pressure equation
question
Pa = XaPoa
answer
[phases and phase changes] Raoult's Law; vapor pressure lowering; solutions that obey this law are called ideal solutions
question
rate1 / rate2 = ?(M2/M1)
answer
[phases and phase changes] Graham's Law of Diffusion and Effusion
question
diffusion
answer
[phases and phase changes] when gas molecules distribute through a volume by random motion
question
effusion
answer
[phases and phase changes] when gas molecules distribute through a volume under pressure through a small opening
question
CASHn Gia, except HAPpy CBS
answer
[solutions] soluble salts
question
not CASHn Gia
answer
[solutions] insoluble salts
question
mass solute / mass solution * 100
answer
[solutions] % mass composition
question
Xa = na / ntotal
answer
[solutions] mole fraction equation
question
m = moles solute / liter solution
answer
[solutions] molarity equation
question
m = moles solute / kg solvent
answer
[solutions] molality equation
question
N = grams solute / liter solvent
answer
[solutions] normality equation
question
arrhenius
answer
[acids and bases] definition where acids produce excess H+, bases produce excess OH-
question
bronsted-lowry
answer
[acids and bases] definition where acids donate PROTONS, bases accept PROTONS
question
lewis
answer
[acids and bases] definition where acids are ELECTRON acceptors, bases are ELECTRON donors
question
10^-14
answer
[acids and bases] Kw = [H+]{OH-] = pH + pOH =
question
[H3O][A] / [HA]
answer
[acids and bases] Ka =
question
[OH][B] / [BOH]
answer
[acids and bases] Kb =
question
salt formation (naturalization reaction)
answer
[acids and bases] acids + bases = salt + water (a neutralization reaction)
question
hydrolysis
answer
[acids and bases] salt + water = acids + bases (opposite of salt formation)
question
amphoteric species
answer
[acids and bases] a species that can act as an acid or a base
question
titration
answer
[acids and bases] determines the molarity of an acid or base by reacting a solution (known volume, unknown concentration) with another solution (known volume, known concentration)
question
pH = pKa
answer
[acids and bases] half-equivalence point in titration
question
pH = pKa + log[A]/[HA]
answer
[acids and bases] henderson-hasselbach equation; determines the pH of a solution in a buffer region where concentrations of the species and its conjugate are equal
question
oxidation
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] loss of electrons
question
reduction
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] gain of electrons
question
oxidizing agent
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] causes oxidation and is therefore reduced itself
question
reducing agent
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] causes reduction and is therefore oxidized itself
question
galvanic cells
galvanic cells
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] (-) ?G --> spontaneous; supplies energy and does work; this energy can be harnessed through half-cells (splitting the reaction up into half-reactions) connected by an apparatus for the flow of electrons
question
electrolytic cells
electrolytic cells
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] (+) ?G --> nonspontaneous; in electrolysis, electric energy is required for a reaction
question
reduction potential
reduction potential
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] the tendency to of a species to acquire electrons and be reduced
question
standard reduction potentials
standard reduction potentials
answer
[redox reactions and electrochemistry] standards used to calculate the standard electromotive force (emf), or the difference in potential between two half-cells
question
-oic acid
answer
[nomenclature] carboxylic acid suffix
question
-anhydride
answer
[nomenclature] anhydride suffix
question
-oate
answer
[nomenclature] ester suffix
question
-amide
answer
[nomenclature] amide suffix
question
-al
answer
[nomenclature] aldehyde suffix
question
-one
answer
[nomenclature] ketone suffix
question
-ol
answer
[nomenclature] alcohol suffix
question
cis-trans isomers
cis-trans isomers
answer
[isomers]
question
cyclic strain
answer
[isomers] includes angle strain (stretching angles) or torsional strain (eclipsing) or nonbonded strain (interactions with subunits)
question
enantiomers
enantiomers
answer
[isomers] MIRROR IMAGES; differ at ALL chiral centers
question
diasteriomers
diasteriomers
answer
[isomers] NOT mirror images; differ at SOME chiral centers
question
R
answer
[isomers] clockwise priority groups around a stereocenter = BLANK configuration
question
S
answer
[isomers] counterclockwise priority groups around a stereocenter = BLANK configuration
question
Z
answer
[isomers] an alkene is BLANK (configuration) if the highest-priority substituents are on the SAME SIDE of the double bond
question
E
answer
[isomers] an alkene is BLANK (configuration) if the highest-priority substituents are on OPPOSITE SIDES of the double bond
question
nucleophiles
answer
[alkanes] "nucleus-loving", have lone pairs or ? bonds that can form new bond to electrophiles; more electron density = more nucleophilicity
question
increased nucleophilicity
answer
[alkanes] increasing charge =
question
decreased nucleophilicity
answer
[alkanes] increasing electronegativity, bulkier molecules, and protic solvents =
question
protic solvents
answer
hydrogen donating solvents are called
question
nucleophilicity
answer
[alkanes] determined by 4 factors : charge, electronegativity, steric hinderance, solvent
question
bacicity (F- > Cl- > Br- > i-)
answer
[alkanes] in aprotic solvents, nucleophilicity parallels BLANK
question
protons, nucleophiles (I- > Br- > Cl- > F-)
answer
[alkanes] in protics solvents, good bases pick up BLANK and are worse BLANK
question
top left
answer
periodic table trends, bacicity goes towards the BLANK
question
bottom left, top left
answer
periodic table trends, nucleopilicity goes towards the BLANK for protic solvents and the BLANK for aprotic solvents (like bacicity)
question
electrophiles
answer
[alkanes] "electron-loving", have a (+) charge, increase with increased (+) charge; carbonyl carbon, substrate carbon in an alkane, carbocations
question
leaving groups
answer
[alkanes] molecular fragments that retain electrons after heterolysis (both electrons go to one product after bond breakage); the best ones stabilize extra electrons; weak bases, large groups with resonance, large groups w ewg's
question
determining mechanisms
answer
[determining organic mechanisms] know your nomenclature, identify functional groups, other reagents, the most reactive functional group, the first step of the reaction, and consider sterospecifity
question
alcohols
answer
[alcohols] have higher boiling points (less soluble) than alkanes
question
alcohol synthesis
answer
[alcohols] addition of water to ? bonds, sn1 and sn2 reactions, reduction of carboxylic acids, aldehydes, ketones, esters
question
alcohol reactions
answer
[alcohols] substitution reactions after protonation or leaving group conversion
question
heteroatom
answer
the atom that is not C or H (F, Cl, Br, I)
question
oxidation
answer
[organic redox] loss of electrons, fewer H bonds, more bonds to heteroatoms (o, n, etc) (takes the H from a molecule)
question
reduction
answer
[organic redox] gain of electrons, more H bonds, fewer bonds to heteroatoms (o, n, etc) (adds H to a molecule)
question
oxidizing agents
oxidizing agents
answer
[organic redox] agents that have high affinity for electrons (O2, O3, Cl2) or unusually high electron states (Mn7+, Cr6+)
question
reducing agents
reducing agents
answer
[organic redox] agents that have low electronegativities and ionization energies; sodium, magnesium, aluminum, zinc, metal hydrides, pretty much anything with an H and are therefore stable
question
PCC
PCC
answer
[organic redox] an oxidizing agent, converts primary alcohols to aldehydes
question
mesylates, tosylates
mesylates, tosylates
answer
[organic redox] alcohols can be converted to these to make them better leaving groups from substitution reactions
question
protecting groups
protecting groups
answer
[organic redox] alcohols can be used as these for carbonyls, as reaction with a dialcohol forms an unreactive acetal; can be removed with an aqueous acid
question
phenol
phenol
answer
[phenols and quinone derivatives] the H of this group is particularly acidic bc the oxygen-containing anion is resonance-stabilized by the ring
question
quinones
quinones
answer
[phenols and quinone derivatives] treatment of phenols with oxidizing agents produces these
question
hydroxyquinones
hydroxyquinones
answer
[phenols and quinone derivatives] further oxidation of quinones produces these; most have biological activity
question
ubiquinone
answer
[phenols and quinone derivatives] aka coenzyme Q; a vital electron carrier associated with complexes I, II, and III of the etc; can be reduced to ubiquinol and oxidized back (called the Q cycle)
question
aldehyde synthesis
aldehyde synthesis
answer
[aldehydes] oxidation of primary alcohols and ozonolysis of alkenes
question
aldehyde reactions
answer
[aldehydes] michael additions, nucleophilic addition to a carbonyl, aldol condensation, and decarboxylation
question
carboxylic acids
answer
[carboxylic acids] have pka values around 4.5 because of resonance stabilization of the conjugate base; electronegative atoms increase acidity with inductive effects; bp is higher than alcohols because these can form 2 H bonds
question
carboxylic acid synthesis
carboxylic acid synthesis
answer
[carboxylic acids] oxidation of primary alcohols with KMnO4, hydrolysis of nitriles
question
carboxylic acid reactions
answer
[carboxylic acids] ester formation, reduction to alcohols, decarboxylation
question
lactams
lactams
answer
[cyclic carboxylic acid derivatives] cyclic amides
question
lactones
lactones
answer
[cyclic carboxylic acid derivatives] cyclic esters
question
carboxylic acid derivatives
answer
[carboxylic acid derivatives] acyl halides (most reactive), anhydrides, carboxylic acids + esters, amides (least reactive)
question
pyrophosphate (PPi)
pyrophosphate (PPi)
answer
[phosphorous-containing compounds] P2O7-4; released during formation of phosphodiester bonds in DNA; unstable in aqueous solution and is hydrolyzed to form 2 molecules of Pi
question
extraction
extraction
answer
[purification methods] separates dissolved substances based on differential solubility in aqueous v. organic solvents
question
distillation
distillation
answer
[purification methods] separates liquids based on boiling points (which depend on intermolecular forces); types include simple, fractional, and vacuum distillation
question
simple distillation
answer
[purification methods] separates two liquids with boiling points below 150C and that are at least 25C apart
question
fractional distillation
answer
[purification methods] separates liquids when their boiling point are LESS than 25C apart
question
vacuum distillation
answer
[purification methods] separates liquids when boiling points are GREATER than 150C (decreased pressure = decreased boiling point)
question
filtration
filtration
answer
[purification methods] separates solids from liquids
question
chromatography
answer
[purification methods] uses a stationary phase and a mobile phase to separate compounds based on size or polarity
question
recrystallization
answer
[purification methods] separates solids based on solubility in varying temperatures
question
electrophoresis
answer
[purification methods] separates macromolecules based on size or charge
question
thin-layer
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to identify a sample stationary phase - polar card, mobile phase - nonpolar solvent
question
reverse-phase
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to identify a sample, opposite of thin-layer; stationary phase - nonpolar card, mobile phase - polar solvent
question
column
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to separate a sample into components; stationary phase - polar gel or powder, mobile phase - non polar solvent
question
ion-exchange
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to separate components by charge; stationary phase - charged beads in column, mobile phase - non polar solvent
question
size-exclusion
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to separate components by size; stationary phase - polar, porous beads in column, mobile phase - non polar solvent
question
affinity
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to purify a molecule of interest; stationary phase - beads coated with antibodies, mobile phase - non polar solvent
question
gas
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography used to separate vaporizable compounds; stationary phase - crushed metal, mobile phase - inert gas
question
high-performance liquid
answer
[purification methods] type of chromatography with same use as column chromatography (separate a sample into compounds), but more precise; stationary phase - small column with concentration gradient, mobile phase - non polar solvent
question
infrared spectroscopy
answer
[spectroscopy] measures molecular vibrations of characteristic functional groups
question
UV spectroscopy
answer
[spectroscopy] involves passing uv light through a chemical sample and plotting absorbance v wavelength
question
NMR
answer
[spectroscopy] look for types of protons (# of peaks), position of peaks (further left = downfield = more deshielded), integration of peaks (larger integration = more protons/peak), and splitting (H's on adjacent carbons will split into n + 1 sub peaks)
question
vectors
answer
[kinematics] force and velocity are examples of BLANK
question
scalars
answer
[kinematics] mass and speed are examples of BLANK
question
uN
answer
[kinematics] static friction, the force that must be overcome to set an object in motion, ?
question
uN
answer
[kinematics] kinetic friction, the force that opposes the motion of objects moving relative to each other, =
question
newton's first law (law of interia)
answer
[newton's law] a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by another force
question
newton's second law
answer
[newton's law] F = ma is BLANK
question
newton's third law
answer
[newton's law] Fb = -Fa is BLANK
question
G(m1m2) / r^2
answer
[newton's law] newton's law of gravitation --> Fg =
question
v^2 / r
answer
[newton's law] centripital acceleration (ac) =
question
mv^2 / r
answer
[newton's law] centripital force (Fc) =
question
translational equilibrium
answer
[newton's law] ?F=0 is BLANK
question
Fdcos(ø)
answer
[work and energy] linear work = ; also, +W = expansion, -W = compression, and W = area under a P v. V curve)
question
W / t
answer
[work and energy] power, or the rate at which work is performed, =
question
.5mv^2
answer
[work and energy] kinetic energy (Ke) =
question
mgh
answer
[work and energy] potential energy (U) =
question
aLo?T
answer
[thermodynamics] linear thermal expansion (when temperature increases, length of a solid increases "a lot"), ?L =
question
ßVo?T
answer
[thermodynamics] thermal volume expansion ?V =
question
conduction
answer
[thermodynamics] transfer of energy via molecular collisions
question
convection
answer
[thermodynamics] transfer of heat by physical motion of a fluid
question
radiation
answer
[thermodynamics] transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves
question
gained, lost
answer
[thermodynamics] Q = mc?T; Q > 0 means heat is BLANK, Q < 0 means heat is BLANK
question
mL
answer
[thermodynamics] heat of transformation, or the quantity of heat needed to change the phase of 1 gram of a substance, Q =
question
Q - W
answer
[thermodynamics] first law of thermodynamics; ?U =
question
-W
answer
[thermodynamics] in an adiabatic process, ?U =
question
Q
answer
[thermodynamics] in a constant volume process, ?U =
question
W
answer
[thermodynamics] in an isothermal process, Q =
question
second law of thermodynamics
answer
[thermodynamics] states that entropy, or disorder, increases
question
m / V
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] density, p =
question
pobject / pwater (10^3)
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] specific gravity (of a submerged object) =
question
F / A
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] pressure, P =
question
Po + pgh
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] absolute pressure, P =
question
P + Patm
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] gauge pressure, Pg =
question
A1v1 = A2v2
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] continuity equation (of fluids)
question
bernoulli's equation
bernoulli's equation
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics]
question
p(buoy)v(submerged)g
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] Buoyant Force = weight of object submerged =
question
archimedes' principle
archimedes' principle
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] the buoyant fouce is equal to the weight of the displaced fluid
question
sink, float
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] if the weight of the fluid displaced is LESS THAN the object's weight, the object will BLANK; if GREATER THAN, it will BLANK
question
F1/A1 = F2/A2
F1/A1 = F2/A2
answer
[hydrostatics and nuclear dynamics] pascal's principle, or that a change in pressure in an enclosed system is transmitted undiminished
question
k(q1q2) / r^2
answer
[electrostatics] coulomb's law, F =
question
kq1 / r^2
answer
[electrostatics] electric field, E =
question
torque
answer
[electrostatics] an electric dipole feels no new translational force, but experiences a BLANK about the center causing it to rotate so that the dipole moment aligns with the electric field
question
U / q (J / C)
answer
[electrostatics] electrical potential, V =
question
W / q
answer
[electrostatics] potential difference (voltage), V =
question
Q / t
answer
[circuits] current, or the flow of electric charge (from high to low potential), I =
question
IR
answer
[circuits] ohm's law, V =
question
pL / A
answer
[circuits] resistance, or opposition to the flow of charge (increases with increasing temperatures) R =
question
kirchhoff's laws
answer
[circuits] 1. the sum of current flowing into a junction must equal the sum of the current leaving at any junction, and 2. the sum of voltage sources = the sum of voltage drops around a closed-circuit loop
question
1 / (1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3)
answer
[circuits] resistance in parallel, Req =
question
R1 + R2 + R3
answer
[circuits] resistance in series, Req =
question
IV, V^2 / R, I^2R
answer
[circuits] power dissipated by resistors, P =
question
Q / V
answer
[circuits] capacitance, or the ability to store charge per unit volume, C =
question
C1 + C2 + C3
answer
[circuits] capacitance in parallel, Ceq =
question
1 / (1/C1 + 1/C2 + C3)
answer
[circuits] capacitance in series, Ceq =
question
.5CV^2
answer
[circuits] energy stored by capacitors, U =
question
1 / T, f*lambda
answer
[waves] wave equations, f = , v =
question
nv / 2L, 2L / n
answer
[waves] standing waves and open pipes equations, f = , lambda = ,
question
nv / 4L, 4L / n
answer
[waves] closed pipes equations, f = , v =
question
P / A
answer
[sound] sound intensity, I =
question
10log(I / Io)
answer
[sound] sound level, ß =
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f(v+vo) / (v-vs)
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[sound] doppler effect; observer and detector moving closer = + in numerator and - in denominator, and vice versa; f'
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c / v
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[optics] refraction, n =
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n1sinø1 = n2sinø2
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[optics] snell's law
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dsinø = n*lambda
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[optics] diffraction, dark fringes equation
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1/o + 1/i = 1/f = 1/r
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[optics] optics (thin spherical lenses) equation
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concave mirror
concave mirror
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[optics] + f ; an object placed WITHIN focal length will form a VIRTUAL and ENLARGED image
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convex mirror
convex mirror
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[optics] - f ; an object placed inside the focal length will form an UPRIGHT VIRTUAL image
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converging (convex) lens
answer
[optics] used to correct hyperopia (farsightedness)
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diverging (concave) lens
diverging (concave) lens
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[optics] - f ; image formed is always VIRTUAL and DIMINISHED
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converging (convex) lens
converging (convex) lens
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[optics] + f ; objects WITHIN the focal length form an VIRTUAL and ENLARGED image; behind the focal length from a REAL and INVERTED image, at the focal point will form NO image
question
diverging (concave) lens
answer
[optics] used to correct myopia (nearsightedness)
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-i / o
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[optics] magnification, m = ; - m = image is reduced and inverted image and vice versa
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hf, hf - W
answer
[atomic and nuclear phenomena] photoelectric effect, E = ; K =
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c / lambda
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frequency =
question
mc^2
answer
[atomic and nuclear phenomena] mass defect, E = ; the difference between the sum of the masses of nucleons in the nucleus and the mass of the nucleus; this is the binding energy that hold nucleons within the nucleus
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noe^t*-lambda
answer
[atomic and nuclear phenomena] half-life equation, n =
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alpha decay
alpha decay
answer
[atomic and nuclear phenomena]
question
beta-minus decay
beta-minus decay
answer
[atomic and nuclear phenomena]
question
beta-plus decay
beta-plus decay
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[atomic and nuclear phenomena]
question
logA + logB
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[mathematics] logA * B =
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logA - logB
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[mathematics] logA / B =
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BlogA
answer
[mathematics] logA^B =
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log(1 / A)
answer
[mathematics] -logA =
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small sample size
answer
[research design] amplifies effects of statistical anomalies
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bias
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[research design] minimized by proper participant selection, blinding, and randomization; selection BLANK, detection BLANK, hawthorne effect
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beneficence
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[ethics] requirement to do good
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nonmaleficence
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[ethics] "do no harm"
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autonomy
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[ethics] the ability to act and make decisions for yourself
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justice
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[ethics] considering only morally relevant differences between patients and distributing healthcare resources fairly
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p-value
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[data analysis] the probability that results were obtained by chance given that the null hypothesis is true
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confidence interval
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[data analysis] a range of values believed to contain the true value with a given level of probability