FIN Final 3320

Which of the following items is NOT included in current assets? a. Accounts receivable. b. Inventory. c. Bonds. d. Cash. e. Short-term, highly liquid, marketable securities.

Below is the common equity section (in millions) of Teweles Technology's last two year-end balance sheets: 2009 2008 Common stock $2,000 $1,000 Retained earnings 2,000 2,340 Total common equity $4,000 $3,340 Teweles has never paid a dividend to its common stockholders. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The company's net income in 2009 was higher than in 2008. b. Teweles issued common stock in 2009. c. The market price of Teweles' stock doubled in 2009. d. Teweles had positive net income in both 2008 and 2009, but the company's net income in 2009 was lower than it was in 2008. e. The company has more equity than debt on its balance sheet

HD Corp. and LD Corp. have identical assets, sales, interest rates paid on their debt, tax rates, and EBIT. However, HD uses more debt than LD. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Without more information, we cannot tell if HD or LD would have a higher or lower net income. b. HD would have the lower equity multiplier for use in the Du Pont equation. c. HD would have to pay more in income taxes. d. HD would have the lower net income as shown on the income statement. e. HD would have the higher net income as shown on the income statement

Which of the following items cannot be found on a firm's balance sheet under current liabilities? a. Accounts payable. b. Short-term notes payable to the bank. c. Accrued wages. d. Cost of goods sold. e. Accrued payroll taxes.

Other things held constant, which of the following alternatives would increase a company's cash flow for the current year? a. Increase the number of years over which fixed assets are depreciated for tax purposes. b. Pay down the accounts payables. c. Reduce the days' sales outstanding (DSO) without affecting sales or operating costs. d. Pay workers more frequently to decrease the accrued wages balance. e. Reduce the inventory turnover ratio without affecting sales or operating costs.

Casey Communications recently issued new common stock and used the proceeds to pay off some of its short-term notes payable. This action had no effect on the company's total assets or operating income. Which of the following effects would occur as a result of this action? a. The company's current ratio increased. b. The company's times interest earned ratio decreased. c. The company's basic earning power ratio increased. d. The company's equity multiplier increased. e. The company's debt ratio increased.

Considered alone, which of the following would increase a company's current ratio? a. An increase in net fixed assets. b. An increase in accrued liabilities. c. An increase in notes payable. d. An increase in accounts receivable. e. An increase in accounts payable.

A firm wants to strengthen its financial position. Which of the following actions would increase its current ratio? a. Reduce the company's days' sales outstanding to the industry average and use the resulting cash savings to purchase plant and equipment. b. Use cash to repurchase some of the company's own stock. c. Borrow using short-term debt and use the proceeds to repay debt that has a maturity of more than one year. d. Issue new stock and then use some of the proceeds to purchase additional inventory and hold the remainder as cash. e. Use cash to increase inventory holdings.

You plan to analyze the value of a potential investment by calculating the sum of the present values of its expected cash flows. Which of the following would lower the calculated value of the investment? a. The cash flows are in the form of a deferred annuity, and they total to $100,000. You learn that the annuity lasts for only 5 rather than 10 years, hence that each payment is for $20,000 rather than for $10,000. b. The discount rate increases. c. The riskiness of the investment's cash flows decreases. d. The total amount of cash flows remains the same, but more of the cash flows are received in the earlier years and less are received in the later years. e. The discount rate decreases.

Which of the following statements regarding a 15-year (180-month) $125,000, fixed-rate mortgage is CORRECT? (Ignore taxes and transactions costs.) a. The remaining balance after three years will be $125,000 less one third of the interest paid during the first three years. b. Because it is a fixed-rate mortgage, the monthly loan payments (which include both interest and principal payments) are constant. c. Interest payments on the mortgage will increase steadily over time, but the total amount of each payment will remain constant. d. The proportion of the monthly payment that goes towards repayment of principal will be lower 10 years from now than it will be the first year. e. The outstanding balance declines at a slower rate in the later years of the loan's life.

Assume that interest rates on 20-year Treasury and corporate bonds with different ratings, all of which are noncallable, are as follows: T-bond = 7.72% A = 9.64% AAA = 8.72% BBB = 10.18% The differences in rates among these issues were most probably caused primarily by: a. Real risk-free rate differences. b. Tax effects. c. Default risk differences. d. Maturity risk differences. e. Inflation differences.

A 10-year bond with a 9% annual coupon has a yield to maturity of 8%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond's price one year from now will be higher than its current price. b. The bond is selling below its par value. c. The bond is selling at a discount. d. If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than its current price. e. The bond's current yield is greater than 9%.

Which of the following events would make it more likely that a company would choose to call its outstanding callable bonds? a. The company's bonds are downgraded. b. Market interest rates rise sharply. c. Market interest rates decline sharply. d. The company's financial situation deteriorates significantly. e. Inflation increases significantly.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT, assuming stocks are in equilibrium? a. The dividend yield on a constant growth stock must equal its expected total return minus its expected capital gains yield. b. Assume that the required return on a given stock is 13%. If the stock's dividend is growing at a constant rate of 5%, its expected dividend yield is 5% as well. c. A stock's dividend yield can never exceed its expected growth rate. d. A required condition for one to use the constant growth model is that the stock's expected growth rate exceeds its required rate of return. e. Other things held constant, the higher a company's beta coefficient, the lower its required rate of return.

Stock X has the following data. Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stock is in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT? Expected dividend, D1 $3.00 Current Price, P0 $50 Expected constant growth rate 6.0% a. The stock's required return is 10%. b. The stock's expected dividend yield and growth rate are equal. c. The stock's expected dividend yield is 5%. d. The stock's expected capital gains yield is 5%. e. The stock's expected price 10 years from now is $100.00.

The required returns of Stocks X and Y are rX = 10% and rY = 12%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the market is in equilibrium, and if Stock Y has the lower expected dividend yield, then it must have the higher expected growth rate. b. If Stock Y and Stock X have the same dividend yield, then Stock Y must have a lower expected capital gains yield than Stock X. c. If Stock X and Stock Y have the same current dividend and the same expected dividend growth rate, then Stock Y must sell for a higher price. d. The stocks must sell for the same price. e. Stock Y must have a higher dividend yield than Stock X.

Stocks A and B have the following data. Assuming the stock market is efficient and the stocks are in equilibrium, which of the following statements is CORRECT? A B Required return 10% 12% Market price $25 $40 Expected growth 7% 9% a. These two stocks should have the same price. b. These two stocks must have the same dividend yield. c. These two stocks should have the same expected return. d. These two stocks must have the same expected capital gains yield. e. These two stocks must have the same expected year-end dividend.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. b. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the risk-free rate, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. c. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the risk-free rate. d. The NPV method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period. e. The IRR method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's NPV is generally found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the IRR to find its PV. b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a project's NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPVs of relatively risky projects should be found using relatively low WACCs.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The shorter a project's payback period, the less desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the regular payback is that this method does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period. c. If a project's payback is positive, then the project should be accepted because it must have a positive NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. One drawback of the discounted payback is that this method does not consider the time value of money, while the regular payback overcomes this drawback.

Project X's IRR is 19% and Project Y's IRR is 17%. The projects have the same risk and the same lives, and each has constant cash flows during each year of their lives. If the WACC is 10%, Project Y has a higher NPV than X. Given this information, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The crossover rate must be less than 10%. b. The crossover rate must be greater than 10%. c. If the WACC is 8%, Project X will have the higher NPV. d. If the WACC is 18%, Project Y will have the higher NPV. e. Project X is larger in the sense that it has the higher initial cost.

Projects S and L are equally risky, mutually exclusive, and have normal cash flows. Project S has an IRR of 15%, while Project L's IRR is 12%. The two projects have the same NPV when the WACC is 7%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have positive NPVs. b. If the WACC is 6%, Project S will have the higher NPV. c. If the WACC is 13%, Project S will have the lower NPV. d. If the WACC is 10%, both projects will have a negative NPV. e. Project S's NPV is more sensitive to changes in WACC than Project L's.

McCall Manufacturing has a WACC of 10%. The firm is considering two normal, equally risky, mutually exclusive, but not repeatable projects. The two projects have the same investment costs, but Project A has an IRR of 15%, while Project B has an IRR of 20%. Assuming the projects' NPV profiles cross in the upper right quadrant, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Each project must have a negative NPV. b. Since the projects are mutually exclusive, the firm should always select Project B. c. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project B will have the higher NPV. d. Only one project has a positive NPV. e. If the crossover rate is 8%, Project A will have the higher NPV.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A project's MIRR is always greater than its regular IRR. b. A project's MIRR is always less than its regular IRR. c. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be less than the IRR. d. If a project's IRR is greater than its WACC, then the MIRR will be greater than the IRR. e. To find a project's MIRR, we compound cash inflows at the IRR and then discount the terminal value back to t = 0 at the WACC.

A company is considering a new project. The CFO plans to calculate the project's NPV by estimating the relevant cash flows for each year of the project's life (i.e., the initial investment cost, the annual operating cash flows, and the terminal cash flow), then discounting those cash flows at the company's overall WACC. Which one of the following factors should the CFO be sure to INCLUDE in the cash flows when estimating the relevant cash flows? a. All sunk costs that have been incurred relating to the project. b. All interest expenses on debt used to help finance the project. c. The investment in working capital required to operate the project, even if that investment will be recovered at the end of the project's life. d. Sunk costs that have been incurred relating to the project, but only if those costs were incurred prior to the current year. e. Effects of the project on other divisions of the firm, but only if those effects lower the project's own direct cash flows.

Suppose Tapley Inc. uses a WACC of 8% for below-average risk projects, 10% for average-risk projects, and 12% for above-average risk projects. Which of the following independent projects should Tapley accept, assuming that the company uses the NPV method when choosing projects? a. Project A, which has average risk and an IRR = 9%. b. Project B, which has below-average risk and an IRR = 8.5%. c. Project C, which has above-average risk and an IRR = 11%. d. Without information about the projects' NPVs we cannot determine which project(s) should be accepted. e. All of these projects should be accepted.

Rowell Company spent $3 million two years ago to build a plant for a new product. It then decided not to go forward with the project, so the building is available for sale or for a new product. Rowell owns the building free and clear¾there is no mortgage on it. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the building has been paid for, it can be used by another project with no additional cost. Therefore, it should not be reflected in the cash flows for any new project. b. If the building could be sold, then the after-tax proceeds that would be generated by any such sale should be charged as a cost to any new project that would use it. c. This is an example of an externality, because the very existence of the building affects the cash flows for any new project that Rowell might consider. d. Since the building was built in the past, its cost is a sunk cost and thus need not be considered when new projects are being evaluated, even if it would be used by those new projects. e. If there is a mortgage loan on the building, then the interest on that loan would have to be charged to any new project that used the building.

Which of the following statements is true of operating breakeven analysis? a. It involves determining the level of production and sales at which net operating income is equal to one. b. It involves determining the point at which revenue from sales equals operating costs. c. It involves the analysis of the level of production and sales at which financing costs are recovered. d. It involves determining the operating income the firm needs to just cover all of its financing costs. e. It involves the analysis of the interest payments to bondholders and the dividend payments to preferred stockholders.

By definition, a firm's operating breakeven point represents the level of production and sales at which: a. additional funds needed equal zero. b. variable costs equal operating revenue. c. fixed variable costs equal operating revenue. d. net operating income equals zero. e. the cost of equity equals the cost of debt.

Everything else equal, a firm can reduce its operating breakeven point by: a. increasing its fixed costs. b. decreasing the selling price of the product that is sold. c. increasing the contribution margin. d. increasing the variable cost per unit. e. decreasing the earnings per share.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? As a firm increases the operating leverage used to produce a given quantity of output, this will a. normally lead to an increase in its fixed assets turnover ratio. b. normally lead to a decrease in its business risk. c. normally lead to a decrease in the standard deviation of its expected EBIT. d. normally lead to a decrease in the variability of its expected EPS. e. normally lead to a reduction in its fixed assets turnover ratio.

Which of the following is true of the degree of operating leverage (DOL)? a. The higher the DOL, the closer the firm is to its financial breakeven point. b. The higher the DOL, the lower the financial risk of the firm. c. The lower the DOL, the higher the operating risk of the firm. d. The higher the DOL, the closer the firm is to its operating breakeven point. e. The higher the DOL, the higher the percentage increase in the sales.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An investor can eliminate virtually all market risk if he or she holds a very large and well diversified portfolio of stocks. b. The higher the correlation between the stocks in a portfolio, the lower the risk inherent in the portfolio. c. It is impossible to have a situation where the market risk of a single stock is less than that of a portfolio that includes the stock. d. Once a portfolio has about 40 stocks, adding additional stocks will not reduce its risk by even a small amount. e. An investor can eliminate virtually all diversifiable risk if he or she holds a very large, well diversified portfolio of stocks.