Chapter 2 Practice

7 January 2024
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6) According to Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act, which of the following employers would be legally allowed to refuse employment to an individual based on race, religion, or sex? A) a state agency with 65 employees B) a medical office with 25 employees C) a local restaurant with 10 employees D) a department store with 100 employees E) a public school with 30 employees
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C Explanation: Title VII bars discrimination on the part of most employers, including all public or private employers of 15 or more persons. It also covers all private and public educational institutions, the federal government, and state and local governments. A business with fewer than 15 employees would legally be allowed to refuse employment based on race, religion, sex, or national origin.
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8) The EEOC was initially established to investigate complaints about ________. A) job discrimination B) unfair business practices C) sexual harassment in schools D) structural accommodations for disabled people E) overtime payments for labor union members
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A Explanation: Title VII established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) to administer and enforce the Civil Rights law at work. The EEOC receives and investigates job discrimination complaints from aggrieved individuals.
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12) When companies utilize ________, they take steps to eliminate the present effects of past discrimination. A) affirmative action B) executive orders C) rehabilitation action D) civil rights guidelines E) equal pay rules
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A Explanation: Affirmative action refers to steps that are taken for the purpose of eliminating the present effects of past discrimination. The Equal Pay Act of 1963 requires employers to pay equal pay for equal work, and the Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 requires employers with federal contracts of more than $2,500 to take affirmative action in employing disabled persons.
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14) Which of the following factors is NOT an acceptable basis for different pay for equal work under the Equal Pay Act of 1963? A) merit B) seniority C) gender D) production quality E) production quantity
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C Explanation: Under the Equal Pay Act of 1963 (amended in 1972), it is unlawful to discriminate in pay on the basis of sex when jobs involve equal work; require equivalent skills, effort, and responsibility; and are performed under similar working conditions. Pay differences derived from seniority systems, merit systems, and systems that measure earnings by production quantity or quality or from any factor other than sex do not violate the act.
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15) Paul is a 49-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is most likely intended to protect Paul from discrimination? A) Executive Order 11375 B) Equal Pay Act of 1963 C) Executive Order 11246 D) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 E) Thirteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution
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D Explanation: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) made it unlawful to discriminate against employees or applicants who are between 40 and 65 years of age. Executive Orders 11246 and 11375 require government contractors to take affirmative action, the 13th Amendment barred slavery, and the Equal Pay Act made it unlawful to discriminate in pay based on the employee's gender.
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16) According to the Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, it is unlawful to ________. A) sue an employer for age-based pay B) fire older employees for insubordination C) require employees to retire at age 65 D) allow juries to determine age discrimination E) institute a minimum age for employees
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C Explanation: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 (ADEA) made it unlawful to discriminate against employees or applicants who are between 40 and 65 years of age. Subsequent amendments eliminated the age cap, effectively ending most mandatory retirement at age 65. The ADEA allows jury trials.
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17) The ________ requires certain federal contractors to take affirmative action for disabled persons. A) Equal Pay Act B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act C) Age Discrimination in Employment Act D) Americans with Disabilities Act E) Civil Rights Act
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B Explanation: The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 requires employers with federal contracts of more than $2,500 to take affirmative action in employing disabled persons. It does not require hiring unqualified people. It does require an employer to take steps to accommodate a disabled worker unless doing so imposes an undue hardship on the employer, which is addressed by the ADA.
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18) Which of the following refers to highly recommended procedures issued by federal agencies regarding employee selection, record keeping, and preemployment inquiries? A) job specifications B) employment metrics C) process charts D) uniform guidelines E) applicant tracking systems
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D Explanation: Uniform guidelines are issued by federal agencies charged with ensuring compliance with equal employment federal legislation explaining recommended employer procedures in detail. They set forth "highly recommended" procedures regarding things like employee selection, record keeping, and preemployment inquiries.
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19) Which of the following does NOT participate in the issuance of uniform guidelines? A) EEOC B) Department of Labor C) Better Business Bureau D) Department of Justice E) Civil Service Commission
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C Explanation: The EEOC, Civil Service Commission, Department of Labor, and Department of Justice together issued uniform guidelines. These set forth "highly recommended" procedures regarding things like employee selection, record keeping, and preemployment inquiries. The Better Business Bureau is not involved in issuing uniform guidelines.
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20) Uniform guidelines from the EEOC are recommended for employers to use in matters regarding all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) employee selection B) record keeping C) preemployment inquiries D) sexual harassment E) psychological testing
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E Explanation: The EEOC, Civil Service Commission, Department of Labor, and Department of Justice together issue uniform guidelines. These set forth "highly recommended" procedures regarding things like employee selection, record keeping, sexual harassment, and preemployment inquiries. The American Psychological Association has its own non-legally binding Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing.
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21) Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws? A) Buckley v. Valeo B) Brown v. Board of Education C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company D) West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish E) Abington School District v. Schempp
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C Explanation: Griggs v. Duke Power Company was a landmark Supreme Court case used to define unfair discrimination as put forth in EEO laws such as Title VII. The Court ruled that employment practices must be job related and that discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal. Brown v. Board of Education held that segregation in public schools was unconstitutional. Choices A, D, and E were not cases related to EEO laws.
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22) In Griggs v. Duke Power Company, Griggs sued the power company because it required coal handlers to be high school graduates. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Griggs because ________. A) high school diplomas were not related to success as a coal handler B) Duke Power Company intentionally discriminated based on race C) no business necessity existed for Duke Power Company D) Title VII forbids job testing E) Griggs held a GED
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A Explanation: The Court ruled in favor of Griggs because having a high school diploma was not relevant to the job of coal handler. The Court held that an employment practice must be job related if it has an unequal impact on members of a protected class.
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23) If a person is in a protected class, he or she is protected by which of the following? A) Department of Labor guidelines B) Sarbanes-Oxley Act C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act D) Consumer Protection Act E) National Labor Relations Board
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C Explanation: The term protected class refers to persons such as minorities and women who are protected by equal opportunity laws, including Title VII. Choices A, B, D, and E are not equal opportunity laws.
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24) All of the following are principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company EXCEPT ________. A) burden of proof is on the employer B) performance standards should be unambiguous C) business necessity is a defense for an existing program D) employment selection practices must be job related E) discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal
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B Explanation: The Court ruled in Griggs v. Duke Power Company that the burden of proof is on the employer to show that a hiring practice such as testing is job related. The Court also ruled that business necessity is the defense for any existing program that has adverse impact and that discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal. The case did not address performance standards.
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25) Under the principles established by Griggs v. Duke Power Company, ________ can be used as a defense for any existing program that has adverse impact. A) occupational qualification B) business necessity C) affirmative action D) burden of proof E) fair in form
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B Explanation: Business necessity is the defense for any existing program that has adverse impact according to Griggs. The court did not define business necessity.
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26) Which court case provided details regarding how employers could validate the relationship between screening tools and job performance? A) West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish B) Albemarle Paper Company v. Moody C) Griggs v. Duke Power Company D) Burlington Industries v. Ellerth E) Ward Cove v. Atonio
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B Explanation: In the Albemarle case, the Court provided more details on how employers could prove that tests or other screening tools relate to job performance. For example, the Court said that if an employer wants to test candidates for a job, then the employer should first clearly document and understand the job's duties and responsibilities
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27) Under the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once a plaintiff shows disparate impact, who has the burden of proving that the challenged practice is job related? A) plaintiff B) employee C) employer D) judge E) EEOC
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C Explanation: According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, once an aggrieved applicant or employee demonstrates that an employment practice (such as "must lift 100 pounds") has a disparate (or "adverse") impact on a particular group, then the burden of proof shifts to the employer, who must show that the challenged practice is job related.
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28) According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, an employee who claims intentional discrimination can sue for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) back pay B) job reinstatement C) punitive damages D) compensatory damages E) substantive consolidation
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E Explanation: According to the Civil Rights Act of 1991, an employee who claims intentional discrimination can sue for back pay, attorneys' fees, court costs, job reinstatement, punitive damages, and compensatory damages. Substantive consolidation is a legal term referring to debt consolidation.
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Race, color, religion, sex, or national origin is a motivating factor in a termination, but the employee would have been terminated for failure to perform anyway. Which of the following most likely exists in this situation? A) mixed motive B) business necessity C) disparate impact D) liability defense E) burden of proof
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A Explanation: An unlawful employment practice is established when the complaining party demonstrates that race, color, religion, sex, or national origin was a motivating factor for any employment practice, even though other factors also motivated the practice. Some employers in so-called "mixed motive" cases had taken the position that even though their actions were discriminatory, other factors like the employee's dubious behavior made the job action acceptable. Under CRA 1991, an employer cannot avoid liability by proving it would have taken the same action—such as terminating someone—even without the discriminatory motive.
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30) Which of the following requires employers to make reasonable accommodations for disabled employees? A) Civil Rights Act of 1991 B) Equal Pay Act of 1963 C) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 D) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 E) Disability Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967
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C Explanation: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 prohibits employment discrimination against qualified disabled individuals. It also says employers must make "reasonable accommodations" for physical or mental limitations unless doing so imposes an "undue hardship" on the business.
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31) According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, which of the following would be considered a disability? A) homosexuality B) voyeurism C) pyromania D) compulsive gambling E) AIDS
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E Explanation: The ADA specifies conditions that it does not regard as disabilities, including homosexuality, bisexuality, voyeurism, compulsive gambling, pyromania, and certain disorders resulting from the current illegal use of drugs. The EEOC's position is that the ADA prohibits discriminating against people with HIV/AIDS.
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32) Which type of disability accounts for the greatest number of ADA claims? A) drug-related B) cosmetic C) mental D) vision E) hearing
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C Explanation: Mental disabilities account for the greatest number of ADA claims. Under EEOC ADA guidelines, "mental impairment" includes "any mental or psychological disorder, such as . . . emotional or mental illness." Drug-related conditions are generally not regarded as disabilities.
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33) Under ADA, those who can carry out the essential functions of the job are known as which of the following? A) protected class B) line managers C) career anchors D) staff authorities E) qualified individuals
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E Explanation: The ADA prohibits discrimination against qualified individuals—those who, with (or without) a reasonable accommodation, can carry out the essential functions of the job. The individual must have the requisite skills, educational background, and experience to do the job.
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34) Which of the following best explains why employers win the majority of ADA cases? A) Employers make the necessary reasonable accommodations for employees. B) Employers prove that age negatively impacts an employee's job performance. C) Employees fail to prove that they are disabled yet qualified to perform a job. D) Conservative judges are sympathetic towards small-business owners. E) Employee attorneys fail to draw connections between Title VII and ADA.
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C Explanation: Employers traditionally prevailed in almost all—96%—federal circuit court ADA decisions. A main reason is that employees were failing to show that they were disabled and qualified to do the job. Unlike with Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, the employee must establish that he or she has a disability that fits under the ADA.
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35) Which of the following will be the most likely result of the ADA Amendments Act of 2008? A) Employees will find it easier to prove that their disabilities are limiting. B) The number of major life activities considered disabilities will be narrowed. C) Employers will be required to make fewer accommodations for workers with disabilities. D) Employers will be required to hire a specific percentage of disabled workers to be in compliance. E) Employees will apply for more jobs knowing that the legislation guarantees their employment.
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A Explanation: The new ADAA's basic effect will be to make it much easier for employees to show that their disabilities are limiting. For example, the new act makes it easier for an employee to show that his or her disability is influencing one of the employee's "major life activities." It does this by adding examples like reading, concentrating, thinking, sleeping, and communicating to the list of ADA major life activities.
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36) In which of the following situations does sexual harassment NOT violate Title VII? A) if the conduct substantially interferes with a person's work performance B) if the conduct creates an intimidating work environment C) if the conduct creates a hostile work environment D) if the conduct is motivated by both age and gender E) if the conduct creates an offensive work environment
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D Explanation: Under Title VII, sexual harassment generally refers to harassment on the basis of sex when such conduct has the purpose or effect of substantially interfering with a person's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment. Sexual harassment violates Title VII. The motivation behind the conduct is not relevant to Title VII violations.
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37) The ________ provides that a person who commits a crime of violence motivated by gender shall be liable to the party injured. A) Civil Rights Act of 1991 B) Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994 C) Pregnancy Discrimination Act D) Vietnam Era Veterans' Readjustment Assistance Act of 1974 E) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973
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B Explanation: The Federal Violence Against Women Act of 1994 provides that a person who commits a crime of violence motivated by gender shall be liable to the party injured. The law offers an additional path women can use to seek relief for violent sexual harassment.
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38) Which of the following is NOT a form of sexual harassment according to EEOC guidelines? A) unwelcome sexual advances that create an intimidating work environment B) requests for sexual favors made implicitly as a condition of employment C) verbal conduct of a sexual nature that unreasonably interferes with work performance D) physical conduct of a sexual nature that creates an offensive work environment E) mutually consensual physical conduct of a sexual nature between co-workers
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E Explanation: EEOC guidelines define sexual harassment as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature that create an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment or interfere with work performance. Requests for sexual favors that are used as the basis for employment decisions are also considered sexual harassment. Consensual sex between co-workers is not considered sexual harassment.
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39) All of the following are ways for an employee to prove sexual harassment EXCEPT by proving that ________. A) the verbal remarks of a co-worker were sexually flirtatious B) the rejection of a supervisor's sexual advances led to a demotion C) a hostile work environment was created by a co-worker's sexual conversation D) a hostile work environment was created by a nonemployee's sexual advances E) a hostile work environment was created by a supervisor's sexually abusive conduct
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A Explanation: The U.S. Supreme Court held that sexual harassment law doesn't cover ordinary "intersexual flirtation." Someone can prove sexual harassment if rejecting a supervisor's sexual advances led to a demotion, firing, or altered work assignment. Sexual harassment can also be proven if a hostile work environment is created by the sexual conduct of supervisors, co-workers, or nonemployees.
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Judy was up for a promotion at Simpson Consulting when her supervisor, Will, encouraged her to develop a sexual relationship with him. He suggested that her promotion would be a sure thing if they were involved. When Judy declined his advances, Will fired her. Which of the following would Judy most likely be able to prove in court if she decided to sue Simpson Consulting? A) hostile environment created by nonemployees B) hostile environment created by supervisors C) hostile environment created by co-workers D) disparate treatment E) quid pro quo
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E Explanation: Quid pro quo (something for something) is the most direct way to prove that rejecting a supervisor's advances adversely affected what the EEOC calls a "tangible employment action" such as hiring, firing, promotion, demotion, and/or work assignment. Quid pro quo would be the best option for Judy if she sues the firm for Will's actions.
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Gus is always making sexual jokes at work. Many employees find the jokes funny, but Shelley, Gus's executive assistant, is uncomfortable with the jokes. Eventually, she decides to quit her job rather than endure the jokes any longer. What form of sexual harassment has Shelley experienced? A) quid pro quo B) hostile environment created by supervisors C) hostile environment created by co-workers D) hostile environment created by nonemployees E) none of the above; Shelley is not a victim of sexual harassment
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B Explanation: As Shelley's supervisor, Gus created a hostile environment according to the EEOC. A claimant does not need to show that the harassment had tangible consequences such as demotion. It is sufficient in many cases to prove that a supervisor's sexual harassment substantially affected an employee's emotional and psychological abilities
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All of the following are ways that an employer can minimize liability in sexual harassment claims EXCEPT ________. A) maintaining thorough records of all sexual harassment complaints B) informing all employees about sexual harassment investigations C) instituting a sexual harassment reporting process D) training employees in sexual harassment policies E) investigating sexual harassment charges promptly
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B Explanation: Maintaining records of complaints, instituting a reporting policy, providing sexual harassment training, and investigating charges quickly are ways that employers can show that they took reasonable care to prevent and correct sexual harassment, which will minimize the employer's liability. Sexual harassment investigations should be conducted privately, and the information should not be made available to all employees.
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Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. Which of the following, if true, would best support the plaintiff's argument that Sanders is liable for sexual harassment? A) Sanders re-published its sexual harassment policy twice within the last year. B) The HR department at Sanders has records of the plaintiff's initial complaints. C) Exit interviews of outgoing Sanders employees include questions about sexual harassment. D) Sanders lacks a management response system for handling sexual harassment complaints. E) Sanders recently lost a court case filed by former employees who claimed disparate treatment.
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D Explanation: Employers can minimize their liability in sexual harassment claims by showing that they have a response system set up for handling sexual harassment complaints, so Sanders may be liable if it lacks a system. Firms that re-publish their sexual harassment policies frequently, keep thorough records of complaints, and address sexual harassment issues during exit interviews are able to show that they took reasonable care to prevent sexual harassment. Disparate treatment refers to discrimination claims rather than sexual harassment claims.
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Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the plaintiff's claim that Sanders is liable for the male employee's conduct? A) The male employee physically threatened the plaintiff on three occasions. B) The male employee made sexual advances towards the plaintiff on a daily basis. C) The male employee was required by HR to participate in a sexual harassment awareness course. D) The male employee's conduct significantly interfered with the plaintiff's ability to perform her job. E) The plaintiff discussed her concerns about the male employee's conduct with female co-workers.
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C Explanation: If the male employee was required to take a sexual harassment course, then that action shows Sanders was making a reasonable attempt to stop the behavior. Choices A, B, and D support the plaintiff's claim that there was a hostile environment. Discussing concerns with employees is irrelevant to liability of the company.
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Sanders Sporting Goods, an international sporting goods chain, is being sued for sexual harassment by a former Sanders employee. The plaintiff asserts that she was the victim of numerous unwanted sexual advances from a male co-worker. The woman claims that Sanders' management condoned a hostile work environment and that the company is liable for the actions of the male employee. All of the following are most likely relevant questions to address in this court case EXCEPT ________. A) Does Sanders have a record of employees who claim disparate treatment in the work place? B) Did the plaintiff verbally state to her male co-worker that she found his behavior offensive? C) Did Sanders take reasonable care to prevent sexual harassment in the work place? D) Does Sanders have a policy statement regarding sexual harassment? E) Is the male co-worker a U.S. citizen and is Sanders a U.S. entity?
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A Explanation: Disparate treatment relates to intentional discrimination, which is not directly important in this case. Firms decrease their liability in sexual harassment cases if they show that they have taken reasonable care to prevent sexual harassment through various actions, such as issuing a policy statement. The first step the woman should have taken is telling the co-worker that his actions were inappropriate in order to show that she followed the appropriate reporting procedures. Whether the co-worker is a U.S. citizen and Sanders is a U.S. entity are important in determining whether EEO laws are applicable.
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One of Alexis' male co-workers has been making sexually suggestive comments to Alexis about her clothing and her appearance, which makes Alexis feel uncomfortable at work. What is the first step Alexis should take to address the problem? A) filing a complaint with the local EEOC office B) filing a complaint with the human resource director C) filing a verbal complaint with the harasser's boss D) writing a letter to the accused E) consulting an attorney
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C Explanation: The first step Alexis should take is filing a verbal complaint with the harasser and the harasser's boss. After that, writing a letter to the accused and filing a report with the HR director are appropriate actions. Filing a complaint with the EEOC and consulting an attorney are the final steps to take if previous efforts have not improved the situation.
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47) Which of the following is a true statement regarding U.S. EEO laws and international employees? A) U. S. EEO laws do not apply to jobs located outside the U.S. even when the employee is a U.S. citizen and the employer is a U.S. entity. B) U.S. EEO laws apply to jobs located outside the U.S. when the employer is a foreign entity and the employee is a U.S. citizen. C) U.S. EEO laws do not apply to jobs located inside the U.S. when the employer is a foreign entity and the employee is a foreign citizen. D) U.S. EEO laws apply to foreign citizens in jobs located outside the U.S. if the employer is a U.S. entity. E) U.S. EEO laws apply inside the U.S. when the employer is a U.S. entity and the employee is a foreigner legally authorized to work in the U.S.
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E Explanation: U.S. EEO laws apply inside the U.S. when the employer is a U.S. entity and the employee is a foreigner legally authorized to work in the U.S. In some cases, U.S. laws may also apply to workers who are not authorized to work in the U.S. The laws do not apply to foreign citizens in jobs outside of the U.S. even when the employer is a U.S. entity.
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48) ________ exists when an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group. A) Unintentional discrimination B) Disparate impact C) Disparate treatment D) Adverse impact E) Prima facie
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C Explanation: Disparate treatment means intentional discrimination and "exists where an employer treats an individual differently because that individual is a member of a particular race, religion, gender, or ethnic group." Disparate impact means that "an employer engages in an employment practice or policy that has a greater adverse impact (effect) on the members of a protected group under Title VII than on other employees, regardless of intent."
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Which of the following refers to the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion? A) disparate treatment B) disparate impact C) business necessity D) adverse impact E) prima facie
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D Explanation: Adverse impact is the overall effect of employer practices that result in significantly higher percentages of members of protected groups being rejected for employment, placement, or promotion. Disparate impact means that employers engage in employment practices that have a greater adverse effect on members of a protected group than on other employees.
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All of the following are ways that an employee or job applicant can show adverse impact EXCEPT ________. A) comparing disparate rejection rates B) holding a fact-finding conference C) utilizing population comparisons D) using the McDonnell-Douglas test E) showing a firm has a restricted policy
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B Explanation: The EEOC investigates charges of discrimination and frequently holds fact-finding conferences, so this would not be an option for employees or job applicants. Comparing disparate rejection rates, using the restricted policy approach, making population comparisons, and using the Mc-Donnell-Douglas test are the four methods available to employees and applicants trying to show that an employer's procedures have an adverse effect on a protected group.
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Which of the following is used by lawyers in disparate impact cases to show intentional disparate treatment? A) disparate rejection rates B) restricted policy approach C) population comparisons D) McDonnell-Douglas test E) 4/5ths rule
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D Explanation: Lawyers in disparate impact cases use disparate rejection rates, restricted policy approaches, and population comparisons to test whether an employer's policies or actions have the effect of unintentionally screening out disproportionate numbers of women or minorities. Lawyers use the McDonnell-Douglas test for showing (intentional) disparate treatment, rather than (unintentional) disparate impact. The 4/5ths rule is used to assess disparate rejection rates
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The formula used by federal agencies to determine disparate rejection rates is based on a selection rate for any racial, ethnic, or sex group less than ________ percent of the rate for the group with the highest rate. A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 80 E) 100
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D Explanation: Federal agencies use a "4/5ths rule" to assess disparate rejection rates: "A selection rate for any racial, ethnic, or sex group which is less than four-fifths or 80% of the rate for the group with the highest rate will generally be regarded as evidence of adverse impact, while a greater than four-fifths rate will generally not be regarded as evidence of adverse impact."
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Which of the following tests for adverse impact and involves demonstrating that the employer's policy either intentionally or unintentionally excludes members of a protected group? A) McDonnell-Douglas test B) BFOQ approach C) systemic method D) restricted policy E) prima facie
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D Explanation: The restricted policy approach means demonstrating that the employer's policy intentionally or unintentionally excluded members of a protected group. Lawyers use the McDonnell-Douglas test for showing (intentional) disparate treatment, rather than (unintentional) disparate impact.
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Which of the following involves comparing the percentage of the minority/protected group and white workers in an organization with the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market? A) personnel population comparison approach B) restricted policy comparison method C) population comparisons approach D) McDonnell-Douglas test E) BFOQ method
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C Explanation: The population comparisons approach compares (1) the percentage of Hispanic (or black or other minority/protected group) and white workers in the organization with (2) the percentage of the corresponding group in the labor market. The EEOC usually defines labor market as the U.S. Census data for that Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area.
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According to ________, an employer can claim that an employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification for performing the job. A) Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act B) Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 C) Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 D) Executive Orders 11246 and 11375 E) 1972 Equal Opportunity Act
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A Explanation: An employer can claim that the employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) for performing the job according to Title VII. Title VII provides that "it should not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire an employee . . . on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise."
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Employers primarily use bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) as a defense against charges of discrimination based on ________. A) sexual orientation B) religion C) age D) gender E) nationality
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C Explanation: Employers use BFOQ mostly as a defense against charges of intentional discrimination based on age. However, Title VII provides that "it should not be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to hire an employee . . . on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances where religion, sex, or national origin is a bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise."
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In which of the following jobs would gender most likely be appropriate to use as a BFOQ? A) fire fighter in a metropolitan fire department B) parole officer for a county court system C) prison guard at a federal penitentiary D) teacher at a private, all-girls school E) actor in a toothpaste commercial
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E Explanation: Gender may be a BFOQ for positions like actor, model, and restroom attendant requiring physical characteristics possessed by one sex. However, for most jobs today, it's difficult to claim that gender is a BFOQ. For example, gender is not a BFOQ for parole and probation officers or teachers. It is not a BFOQ for positions just because the positions require lifting heavy objects, such as with fire fighters.
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Pictures and Promotions Modeling Studio seeks to hire male models for an upcoming fashion show featuring men's wear. The studio is using ________ as a justification for not considering women for the jobs. A) BARS B) ADEA C) ADA D) EEOC E) BFOQ
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E Explanation: An employer can claim that the employment practice is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) for performing the job. In this case, a specific gender is necessary for the job. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) permits disparate treatment in cases where age is a BFOQ, which is not the issue in this example.
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Which defense requires showing that there is an overriding company-related purpose for a discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable? A) prima facie B) business necessity C) adverse impact D) mixed motive E) organizational preference
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B Explanation: "Business necessity" is a defense created by the courts that requires showing that there is an overriding business purpose for the discriminatory practice and that the practice is therefore acceptable. It's not easy to prove business necessity because the Supreme Court made it clear that business necessity does not encompass such matters as avoiding an employer inconvenience, annoyance, or expense.
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The application requirements for Western Airlines pilot positions require candidates to have logged at least 200 hours piloting an aircraft within the previous 36 months. In addition, applicants must have 2,500 hours of experience in the air with at least 1,000 hours as the commanding pilot of a commercial airplane. A four-year college degree is also required. Jeff Sanchez, who is Hispanic, applied for a position as a pilot and was rejected because he has a degree from a 2-year college and only 2,000 hours of flight experience. Jeff is suing Western Airlines for discriminatory hiring practices. Which of the following, if true, best supports Western Airlines' defense? A) At Western Airlines, turnover is high among minority employees working as pilots and flight attendants. B) Recent experiences with college recruiting have led Western Airlines to increase the percentage of its minority pilots. C) Job capability as a Western Airlines pilot depends most heavily on age, gender, and previous job experiences. D) The total number of hours spent flying a commercial airline is a valid predictor of performance for most Western Airlines pilots. E) Western Airlines bases its selection tests and hiring practices on industry guidelines for commercial pilots.
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D Explanation: Western Airlines' best defense involves proving that its selection tests or other employment practices are valid predictors of performance on the job. Where the employer can establish such validity, the courts have generally supported using the test or other employment practice as a business necessity. In this example, the number of flight hours is a predictor of job performance. Turnover, recruiting, age, gender, and industry guidelines are less important factors.
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The application requirements for Western Airlines pilot positions require candidates to have logged at least 200 hours piloting an aircraft within the previous 36 months. In addition, applicants must have 2,500 hours of experience in the air with at least 1,000 hours as the commanding pilot of a commercial airplane. A four-year college degree is also required. Jeff Sanchez, who is Hispanic, applied for a position as a pilot and was rejected because he has a degree from a 2-year college and only 2,000 hours of flight experience. Jeff is suing Western Airlines for discriminatory hiring practices. Which of the following statements is most likely relevant to this court case against Western Airlines? A) Most pilots at Western Airlines belong to labor unions and are involved in collective bargaining arrangements detrimental to the industry. B) The job requirements for pilots at Western Airlines are a business necessity due to the human risks associated with hiring unqualified applicants. C) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prevents firms, such as Western Airlines, from discriminating when age is a BFOQ. D) Western Airlines has been in operation for over twenty years and has never been sued for EEO violations. E) As a global firm, Western Airlines can easily establish a prima facie case of discrimination based on race.
answer
: B Explanation: Commercial pilots put passengers at risk if they are unqualified, so it is a business necessity for Western Airlines to have what may be discriminatory hiring practices. In this example, the job requires a high degree of skill, and the economic and human risks of hiring an unqualified applicant are great.
question
All of the following recruitment practices are potentially discriminatory EXCEPT ________. A) spreading information about job openings through word-of-mouth among a firm's predominantly Hispanic workforce B) providing misleading information to Asian and Indian job applicants C) refusing to advise older applicants about work opportunities D) posting help wanted ads that specify young, male applicants E) posting job advertisements only in local newspapers
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E Explanation: Ads that specify age or gender may be problematic, but only posting ads in local newspapers is acceptable. Using word-of-mouth to relay information about job openings is only problematic if the workforce is mostly a member of a particular group. Providing misleading or false information to certain applicants is also potentially discriminatory.
question
Which of the following is most likely an example of a discriminatory selection standard? A) measuring a software designer applicant's knowledge about a computer language B) requiring a high school teacher applicant to have a four-year college degree C) collecting work history information from a managerial applicant D) requiring engineer applicants to meet specific height standards E) asking prison guard applicants to reveal their arrest records
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D Explanation: It would most likely be unlawful to require engineers to meet certain height standards because height is not related to the job. If a job requires security clearance, such as a prison guard, then it is not discriminatory to ask about an applicant's arrest record. Educational requirements, physical characteristics, and knowledge are acceptable selection standards when they specifically relate to the job.
question
What is the most common next step in the EEOC enforcement process after a person files an employment discrimination claim? A) The EEOC either accepts or refers the charge. B) The two parties are required to participate in mediation. C) A commission investigates the claim in an open-meeting. D) The EEOC determines if the charge is based on Title VII rules. E) The employer and EEOC bring a civil suit in a federal district court.
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A Explanation: After a person files an employment discrimination claim, the EEOC's common practice is to accept a charge or orally refer it to a state or local agency. An investigation, voluntary mediation, and litigation may occur after the charge is accepted.
question
Which of the following refers to an informal meeting held early in an EEOC enforcement investigation that attempts to define issues and determine if settlement is possible? A) codetermination B) voluntary mediation C) fact-finding conference D) collective bargaining E) mandatory arbitration
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C Explanation: Early in the investigation, the EEOC holds an initial fact-finding conference. The EEOC calls these "informal meetings" for defining issues and determining whether there's a basis for negotiation. However, the EEOC's real focus here is often on settlement. Its investigators use the conferences to find weak spots in each party's position, which are used to push for a settlement.
question
In 2006, which of the following became a major focus for the EEOC? A) age discrimination cases B) voluntary mediation C) grievance procedures D) cases of systemic discrimination E) diversity management programs
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D Explanation: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission voted unanimously in 2006 to focus more on big,"systemic" cases, those that reflect a pattern or practice of alleged discrimination. Its systemic cases task force recently issued specific recommendations the EEOC can use to uncover and remedy systemic discrimination.
question
The EEOC describes a(n) ________ as an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination. A) fact-finding conference B) voluntary mediation C) voluntary negotiation D) mandatory arbitration E) alternative dispute resolution
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B Explanation: The EEOC refers about 10% of its charges to a voluntary mediation mechanism. This is "an informal process in which a neutral third party assists the opposing parties to reach a voluntary, negotiated resolution of a charge of discrimination."
question
Which of the following refers to the variety of demographic features that characterize a company's workforce? A) competency B) ethnocentricity C) globalization D) mobility E) diversity
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E Explanation: Diversity refers to the variety or multiplicity of demographic features that characterize a company's workforce, particularly in terms of race, sex, culture, national origin, handicap, age, and religion. Globalization requires employers to hire minority members with the cultural and language skills to deal with customers abroad.
question
Which of the following is most likely characteristic of a firm effectively implementing a diversity management program? A) Female and minority managers have high turnover rates. B) Female and minority employees have access to international job assignments. C) Female and minority employees report directly to low-level managers. D) Diversity training requirements are only completed by minority and female workers. E) Voluntary mediation occurs frequently among female and minority workers.
answer
B Explanation: In firms with diversity management programs that are successful, female and minority workers would have the same access to international job assignments as white, male employees. Minorities would also report directly to senior management rather than low-level managers, and they would have low turnover rates.
question
In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California, which of the following claims was made by Allen Bakke? A) sexual harassment B) racial discrimination C) reverse discrimination D) affirmative action E) quid pro quo
answer
C Explanation: The case serves as an example of reverse discrimination. In Bakke v. Regents of the University of California (1978), the University of California at Davis Medical School denied admission to white student Allen Bakke, allegedly because of the school's affirmative action quota system, which required that a specific number of openings go to minority applicants. In a 5-to-4 vote, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down the policy that made race the only factor in considering applications for a certain number of class openings and thus allowed Bakke's admission.