Chapter 13 A&P; Brain, Cranial Nerves

Which of the following is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) prosencephalon D) midbrain E) pons

Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brainstem? A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) midbrain D) diencephalon E) cerebellum

Which of the following is improperly paired? A) telencephalon — will form the cerebrum B) diencephalon — becomes the ventricle C) mesencephalon — also called the midbrain D) metencephalon — will form the cerebellum and pons E) myelencephalon — will form the medullar oblongata

The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the bodyʹs neural tissue. A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 68 percent D) 97 percent E) 100 percent

Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains. A) larger B) smaller C) the same size D) very smooth E) more convoluted

During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? A) telencephalon B) diencephalon C) midbrain D) metencephalon E) myelencephalon

The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) brainstem. D) midbrain. E) myelencephalon.

________ are chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid. A) Lobes B) Ventricles C) Nuclei D) Fissures E) Gyri

Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) cerebellum.

The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brainstem are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) thalamus.

Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebellum.

Which of the following is improperly paired? A) falx cerebri — a fold of dura mater between the cerebral hemispheres B) septum pellucidum — a thin partition that separates the two lateral ventricles C) corpus callosum — thick tract of gray matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres D) interventricular foramen - the opening between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle E) cerebral aqueduct — slender canal that connects the third and fourth ventricle

Each lateral ventricle communicates with the third ventricle through a(n) A) septum pellucidum. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) aqueduct of midbrain. D) interventricular foramen. E) medulla oblongata.

The third and fourth ventricles are linked by a slender canal designated as the A) central canal. B) tentorium cerebelli. C) cerebral aqueduct. D) interventricular foramina. E) septum pellucidum.

The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the A) first. B) second. C) third. D) fourth. E) lateral.

wo large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) tentorium cerebelli. B) falx cerebelli. C) lateral aperture. D) falx cerebri. E) arachnoid granulations.

The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the A) dural sinus. B) falx cerebri. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) falx cerebelli. E) choroid plexus.

What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) subdural space B) dural sinus C) falx cerebri D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater

Cerebrospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells. B) is formed by a passive process. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. E) is formed by a passive process and has almost the same composition as blood plasma.

Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the A) third ventricle. B) arterial circulation. C) venous circulation. D) fourth ventricle. E) central canal.

Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) jugular veins. B) dural drain. C) superior sagittal sinus. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) frontal sinus.

The neural tissue is isolated from the general circulation by the A) dura mater. B) choroid plexuses. C) arachnoid granulations. D) meninges. E) blood-brain barrier.

pecialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus. A) astrocyte B) ependymal C) neuron D) microglia E) oligodendrocyte

The choroid plexuses produces CSF at a rate of about A) 500 mL/day. B) 250 mL/day. C) 50 mL/day. D) 1000 mL/day. E) 150 mL/day.

The layer of the meninges that closely follows every gyrus and sulcus is the A) pia mater. B) dura mater. C) arachnoid mater. D) subarachnoid space. E) subarachnoid mater.

Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brain C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients D) provides ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products

Which of these is mismatched with its location? A) falx cerebri; between cerebral hemispheres B) tentorium cerebelli; between cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum C) falx cerebelli; between cerebellar hemispheres D) superior sagittal sinus; runs along superior edge of the corpus callosum E) dural venous sinuses; large collecting veins located within the dural folds

All of the following help(s) to directly protect the brain except A) the blood-brain barrier. B) the bones of the skull. C) the cranial meninges. D) the CSF. E) the neural tubes.

As CSF circulates, ________ between it and the interstitial fluid of the CNS is unrestricted between and across the ependymal cells. A) osmosis B) perfusion C) diffusion D) convection E) conduction

All of the following are properly paired except A) reticular formation - located in the medulla oblongata. B) gracile nucleus - relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus. C) ascending tracts - carry motor information to the thalamus. D) cuneate nucleus - relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus. E) inferior olivary complex - relays information from the red nucleus.

The cardiovascular reflexes are based in the A) cerebrum. B) midbrain. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) spinal cord.

The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the A) reticular formation of the pons. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) reflex centers of the medulla oblongata. D) arbor vitae of the cerebellum. E) substantia nigra of the midbrain.

The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) medulla oblongata. E) heart.

________ is the term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated. A) Ascending B) Descending C) Decussation D) Relaying E) Coordinating

Which of the following is not found in the medulla oblongata? A) reticular formation. B) respiratory rhythmicity centers. C) solitary nucleus. D) nuclei for CN V, VI, and VII. E) olivary nucleus.

he pons contains all of the following structures except the A) sensory and motor nuclei for cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII. B) nuclei concerned with the control of respiration. C) tracts that link the cerebellum with the brainstem. D) transverse fibers that link the pons with the cerebellum. E) pyramids that contain motor tracts originating in the cerebral cortex.

The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the A) cortex. B) medulla. C) fourth ventricle. D) vermis. E) arbor vitae.

The shallow folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called A) folia. B) fissures. C) gyri. D) sulci. E) arbor vitae.

A cortex is found on the surface of both the A) cerebral hemispheres and pons. B) pons and cerebellum. C) cerebellum and medulla oblongata. D) cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres. E) pons and medullar oblongata.

Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) midbrain. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata.

The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) tactile sensations. B) visual information. C) equilibrium-related sensations. D) gustatory information. E) proprioceptor information.

The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a worm-shaped band of cortex called the A) cerebellar peduncles. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid.

The white matter of the cerebellum forms the A) cerebellar peduncles. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid.

The tract that links the cerebellum with the pons is the A) superior cerebellar peduncle. B) inferior cerebellar peduncle. C) middle cerebellar peduncle. D) longitudinal fibers. E) obverse fibers.

The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A) pons. B) medulla. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellar cortex. E) arbor vitae.

The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi.

The regions of the midbrain that issue subconscious motor commands that affect upper limb position and background muscle tone are the A) tecta. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi.

Descending nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the midbrain are the A) tegmenta. B) corpora quadrigemina. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi.

Stimulation of the reticular formation results in A) increased consciousness. B) sleep. C) coma. D) decreased cerebral function. E) All of the above.

The tectum of the midbrain contains the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) superior and inferior colliculi. D) cerebral peduncles. E) basal ganglia.

he reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the midbrain. Which nuclei accomplish this? A) substantia nigra B) red nuclei C) tectum D) superior colliculi E) inferior colliculi

Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the A) nucleus gracilis. B) nucleus cuneatus. C) motor cortex. D) substantia nigra. E) red nucleus.

Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with A) control of muscle tone. B) regulation of body temperature. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck. D) subconscious control of skeletal muscles of the upper limbs. E) control of breathing.

Damage to the superior colliculi would interfere with the reflex ability to A) express rage. B) voluntarily move the arm. C) react to a bright light. D) react to loud noises. E) maintain proper posture.

The midbrain contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention. A) cardiovascular control center B) reticular activating system C) respiratory rhythmicity center D) tectum E) tegmentum

The superior colliculi receive visual input from the lateral geniculate nuclei via the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) optic tract. E) inferior colliculi.

The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. A) thalamus B) infundibulum C) brain stem D) mammillary body E) anterior commissure

The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) pons E) hypothalamus

The ________ filters and relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla oblongata E) cerebellum

Which of the following is a property of the mammillary bodies? A) controls feeding reflexes like swallowing and licking B) responsible for auditory reflexes C) located posterior to the pons D) connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland E) secretes melatonin

Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secretes cerebrospinal fluid B) secretes melatonin C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum D) stores memories E) regulates food intake

The anterior nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) secrete pituitary hormones. C) secrete melatonin. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve. E) control feeding reflexes like licking and swallowing.

The medial nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) integrate sensory information for relay to the frontal lobes. C) produce the hormone oxytocin. D) process visual information. E) receive sensory information from the cerebellum.

he ventral nuclei of the thalamus perform all of the following functions except A) relaying input from basal ganglia to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. B) relaying input from cerebellum to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. C) relaying general sensory input to the primary sensory cortex. D) projecting visual and auditory information to the visual and auditory cortices.

The posterior nuclei of the thalamus include all of the following areas except A) pulvinar. B) lateral geniculate. C) medial geniculate. D) mammillary bodies.

The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the A) pulvinar nuclei. B) lateral geniculate nuclei. C) medial geniculate nuclei. D) preoptic area. E) suprachiasmatic nuclei.

The ________ relay(s) auditory information to the auditory cortex. A) pulvinar nuclei B) lateral geniculate nuclei C) medial geniculate nuclei D) preoptic area E) suprachiasmatic nuclei

Which of the following is incorrect? A) pulvinar nuclei — integrates sensory information for projection to the association areas of the cerebral cortex B) lateral geniculate nuclei — projects visual information to primary visual cortex C) medial geniculate nuclei — projects auditory information to primary auditory cortex D) preoptic area — regulates body temperature E) suprachiasmatic nuclei — secretes ADH

All of the following are a function of the hypothalamus except A) coordinating day-night cycles of activity/inactivity. B) controlling autonomic centers. C) regulating body temperature. D) secreting hormones. E) projecting visual information to the visual cortex.

Which of the following hypothalamic functions is incorrect? A) regulate lactation — preoptic region B) secrete oxytocin — paraventricular nucleus C) control feeding reflexes — mammillary bodies D) control heart rate and blood pressure — autonomic centers E) secrete antidiuretic hormone — supra-optic nucleus

Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an intense thirst B) an uncontrolled sex drive C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an insatiable appetite E) production of a large volume of urine

Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located? A) prefrontal cortex B) postcentral gyrus C) basal nuclei D) hypothalamus E) reticular formation

The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) mammillary bodies D) hippocampus E) fornix

A tract of white matter found in the limbic system that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the A) amygdaloid body. B) cingulate gyrus. C) mammillary bodies. D) hippocampus. E) fornix.

Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged? A) the prefrontal lobe B) the general interpretive area C) the limbic system D) the thalamus E) the putamen

Which of the following is not one of the basal nuclei? A) caudate nucleus B) globus pallidus C) putamen D) hippocampus E) lentiform nucleus

Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the A) anterior commissures. B) basal nuclei. C) motor association areas. D) visual cortex. E) auditory cortex.

The basal nuclei A) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. C) coordinate sensory information. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. E) control respiration and blood pressure.

The basal nuclei A) initiate conscious motor activity. B) activate spinal reflexes. C) adjust and refine learned motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensory input.

Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to A) increased muscle tone. B) loss of consciousness. C) inability to sense pain. D) sexual arousal. E) involuntary speech production.

Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are A) fissures. B) sinuses. C) lobes. D) sulci. E) gyri.

The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula.

The superior border of the temporal lobe is marked by the A) insula. B) longitudinal fissure. C) central sulcus. D) lateral sulcus. E) parieto-occipital sulcus.

The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) parietal lobe and the frontal lobe.

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called ________ areas. A) commissural B) sensory C) association D) somesthetic E) processing

The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the A) prefrontal cerebral cortex. B) occipital association cortex. C) reticular formation. D) temporal lobe. E) cerebral ganglia.

The sense of taste projects to the gustatory cortex located in the A) insula. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) prefrontal cortex. E) occipital lobe.

ntegrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include all of the following except A) speech. B) writing. C) mathematical computation. D) understanding spatial relationships. E) vision.

The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) corpus callosum.

Damage to the somatic motor association area of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to A) understand written words. B) understand spoken words. C) understand visual images. D) play the piano. E) sense the texture of velvet.

The general interpretive area A) is the speech center of the brain. B) is responsible for predicting future consequences. C) is the site of long-term memory storage. D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard. E) may be damaged by even a small stroke.

Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the general interpretive area. C) Brocaʹs area. D) Wernickeʹs area. E) the temporal lobe.

A person with a damaged visual association area may be A) unable to see rows of letters. B) declared legally blind. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. E) unable to understand spoken words.

_______ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech. A) Frontal B) Integrative C) Communication D) Terminal E) Vocal

As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become A) more complex. B) simpler. C) better understood. D) less crucial to visceral functions. E) both more complex and less crucial to visceral functions.

After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe. A) right frontal B) left frontal C) right temporal D) left temporal E) occipital

Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his A) vestibulocochlear nerve. B) Wernickeʹs area. C) speech center. D) prefrontal lobe. E) temporal lobe.

Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to A) speak. B) move her left arm. C) analyze by touch an object in her right hand. D) recognize written words. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.

After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) prefrontal cortex. B) postcentral gyrus. C) Wernickeʹs area. D) Brocaʹs area. E) visual cortex.

In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in the A) left cerebellar hemisphere. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) right cerebellar hemisphere. D) right cerebral hemisphere. E) thalamus.

The area of the brain that performs spatial visualization and analyzing is the A) left cerebellar hemisphere. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) right cerebellar hemisphere. D) right cerebral hemisphere. E) thalamus.

Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called A) lobes. B) cortices. C) hemispheres. D) association areas. E) primary motor areas.

If the corpus callosum is surgically cut, which of the following is not true? A) The two cerebral hemispheres operate independently. B) Objects viewed by the left eye can be verbally identified. C) Objects touched by the left hand could be recognized but not verbally identified. D) Conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side. E) Faces seen by the left eye cannot be identified.

The ________ connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same hemisphere. A) arcuate fibers B) longitudinal fasciculi C) commissural fibers D) fibers of the corpus callosum E) fibers of the anterior commissure

The corpus callosum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers.

White matter fibers that pass from one gyrus to the adjacent gyrus are called A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers.

The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the A) longitudinal fissure. B) central sulcus. C) transverse fissure. D) parieto-occipital sulcus. E) postcentral sulcus.

The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers.

A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brainʹs electrical activity over a period of time. A) electrocardiogram B) electroencephalogram C) X-ray D) MRI E) CT scan

_______ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior. A) Dyslexia B) Apraxia C) Aphasia D) Parkinsonʹs disease E) A seizure

There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves. A) 2 B) 6 C) 12 D) 22 E) 31

The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are A) I, II, and III. B) III, IV, and VI. C) II, III, and IV. D) II and VI. E) III and V.

The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) abducens. B) facial. C) vagus. D) trigeminal. E) glossopharyngeal.

Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve. A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal

Gustatory information reaches the brain by way of cranial nerve A) I. B) II. C) X. D) IV. E) IX.

Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) trochlear E) vagus and glossopharyngeal

he Roman numeral V indicates the ________ nerve. A) trigeminal B) trochlear C) abduces D) oculomotor E) vestibulocochlear

The Roman numeral VIII indicates the ________ nerve. A) trigeminal B) trochlear C) abducens D) oculomotor E) vestibulocochlear

Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract.

Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) abducens

A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected? A) glossopharyngeal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) spinal accessory E) trigeminal

Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve? A) loss of the sense of taste B) tooth pain C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) lack of facial expression E) dry mouth from lack of saliva

Damage to the ________ nerve would result in near paralysis of the eye. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) abducens

Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it ʺwanders,ʺ that is, innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen? A) VIII B) IX C) X D) XI E) XII

Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb? A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal

You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to A) smell his food. B) smile. C) blink his eyes. D) nod his head. E) see.

The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following except A) temperature. B) taste. C) touch. D) vibration. E) pain.

Which of the following is not one of the special senses? A) hearing B) smell C) taste D) balance e) touch

The general senses A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs. C) are localized to specific areas of the body. D) cannot generate action potentials. E) are limited to the skin.

As the size of the receptor field gets smaller, the ability to localize a specific stimulus A) improves. B) diminishes. C) is not affected. D) cannot be determined.

Sensory pathways can receive information by all of the following except A) a stimulus altering the permeability of a receptor membrane. B) a change in the flow of ions across the sensory membrane. C) a projection over a labeled line. D) conversion of a stimulus to a change in membrane potential. E) voluntary response.

The information that is passed from a sensory receptor to the central nervous system is called a A) depolarization of a receptor. B) perception C) transducer. D) motor pathway. E) sensation.

The ________ is the area monitored by a single receptor cell. A) stimulus B) sensation C) perception D) labeled line E) receptive field

The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a A) receptor. B) receptive field. C) labeled line. D) sensation. E) transduction.

_______ is a conscious awareness of a sensation. A) Association B) Perception C) Integration D) Reception E) Stimulation

The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as A) a labeled line. B) perception. C) an action potential. D) transduction. E) stimulation.

The CNS interprets the ________ of stimulus entirely on the basis of the labeled line over which it arrives. A) duration B) intensity C) location D) type E) adaptation

Only about ________ percent of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex and our awareness. A) 1 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 E) 95

In order for a sensation to become a perception, A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. B) the individual must vocalize about it. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers. D) the other senses must be silent. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus.

A labeled line is a(n) A) translation of complex sensory information. B) link between a receptor and the CNS processing center. C) reduction in sensitivity. D) stimulation that produces action potentials. E) adjustment for sensitivity adaptation.

Our perception of our environment is imperfect for all of the following reasons except that A) humans lack receptors for every possible stimulus. B) receptors respond by producing action potentials. C) not all sensations lead to a perception. D) abnormal receptor function can produce sensations that have no basis in fact. E) our receptors have limited sensitivity.

All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except A) the structure of the receptor cell. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli. E) density of the receptors.

Central adaptation refers to A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.

Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors. A) phasic B) tonic

Sensory neurons that are normally inactive but can become active for a short time are called ________. A) phasic receptors B) tonic receptors C) myelinated D) proprioceptors E) nociceptors

_______ is a reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus. A) Sensation B) Reception C) Adaptation D) Transduction E) Integration

Which of the following is sometimes called ʺprickling painʺ? A) mechanical damage B) chemicals C) extremes of temperature D) fast pain E) both chemicals and fast pain

A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) nociceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor.

Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) nociceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors.

Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) nociceptors. B) baroreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors.

A receptor that responds to chemicals dissolved in solution is a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) nociceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor.

Which receptor(s) always send(s) a signal, but the rate of action potentials changes as a result of stimulation? A) phasic B) tonic C) both phasic and tonic

________ receptors are ________ times more numerous than ________ receptors. A) Warm; three or four; cold B) Thermoreceptors; three or four; cold C) Cold; three or four; warm D) Thermoreceptors; three or four; temperature E) Cold; ten; warm

Examples of sensory modalities include all of the following except A) touch. B) warmth. C) smell. D) vibration. E) creativity.

Which of the following is not a property of thermoreceptors? A) They are free nerve endings. B) Warm receptors outnumber cold receptors. C) They are found in skeletal muscle. D) They are found in the hypothalamus. E) Cold receptors outnumber warm receptors.

Mechanoreceptors might detect all of the following sensations except A) pressure. B) touch. C) vibration. D) muscle length. E) muscle pain.

If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense. A) smell B) sight C) balance D) cold E) hearing

Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) both accessory cells and the fact that they are interoceptors.

Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS. A) decreases B) increases C) stabilizes D) neutralizes

Tickle is to ________ as ache is to ________. A) pressure; heat B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) touch; pain D) stretch; temperature E) thermoreceptors; nociceptors

________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure. A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Proprioceptors E) Photoreceptors

All of the following are true of a prickling pain sensation except that they A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cannot be localized to a small area. D) receive conscious attention. E) often trigger somatic reflexes.

Sensations of burning or aching pain A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus. D) are well localized. E) are fast adapting.

Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________. A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

A fast-adapting mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) root hair plexus. C) free nerve ending. D) Ruffini corpuscle. E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.

Tactile receptors composed of capsules that surround a core of collagen fibers intertwined with dendrites are called A) Ruffini corpuscles. B) lamellar corpuscles. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. D) tactile discs. E) root hair plexuses.

A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) Ruffini corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a A) Ruffini corpuscle. B) lamellar corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. C) Ruffini corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus.

A fast-adapting tactile receptor that monitors movements across the body surface is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) lamellar corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) Ruffini corpuscle. E) root hair plexus.

Which of the following kinds of information do fine-touch and light-pressure mechanoreceptors provide? A) location of the stimulus B) shape of the stimulus C) texture of the stimulus D) movement of the stimulus E) All of the answers are correct.

Tactile discs are to ________ as tactile corpuscles are to ________. A) Wilms; Meissner B) Merkel; Meissner C) Meissner; Merkel D) Pacinian; Merkel E) pain; pressure

The sensory neuron that carries a sensation to the CNS is a ________ neuron. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order

Thalamic neurons that travel to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons. A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order

Neurons from the nucleus gracilis A) relay information directly to the cerebrum. B) decussate before entering the medial lemniscus. C) relay sensory information to the ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere. D) carry both crude and fine touch. E) relay information directly to the cerebrum and carry both crude and fine touch.

We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because A) sensory neurons carry only one modality. B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions. C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus. D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes. E) of the many types of tactile receptors.

Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration? A) corticobulbar B) corticospinal C) posterior (dorsal) column D) spinothalamic E) both posterior (dorsal) column and spinothalamic

The spinal tract that carries sensations from proprioceptors to the CNS is the A) fasciculus gracilis. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic.

The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the A) corticospinal pathway. B) posterior column pathway. C) spinocerebellar pathway. D) lateral spinothalamic tract of the spinothalamic pathway. E) anterior spinothalamic tract of the spinothalamic pathway.

third-order neurons:

Which part(s) of the following statement is/are true? Somatic sensory axons enter the ventral root and usually decussate before ascending to the thalamus. A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false. B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true. C) Both parts of the statements are true. D) Both parts of the statements are false.

Stimulation of a neuron that terminates close to the longitudinal fissure of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a sensation in the right leg. B) a sensation in the lips. C) a muscle twitch in the right leg. D) a muscle twitch in the lips. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg.

Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on A) the frequency of action potentials. B) which labeled line is active. C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated. D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor. E) both the frequency of action potentials and which labeled line is active.

What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side? A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body

Sensory information that arrives at the CNS is routed according to the ________ of the stimulus. A) type B) intensity C) location D) speed E) type and location

The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the cord is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the pyramids of the medulla oblongata is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

The spinal tract that normally plays a minor role in the control of the distal muscles of the arms is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone of the neck, eyes, head, and limbs is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to bright lights and loud sounds is the ________ tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

The pyramidal system provides A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles. B) voluntary control over smooth muscles. C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles. D) involuntary control over smooth muscles. E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle.

The corticospinal system is often referred to as the A) red nucleus. B) reticular formation. C) spinothalamic tracts. D) pyramidal system. E) medullary centers.

The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the A) size of the body area. B) distance of the body area from the brain. C) number of motor units in that region. D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body. E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.

Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the A) sensory neurons. B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord. D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves. E) nuclei in the thalamus.

The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the ________ tracts. A) corticospinal B) corticobulbar C) reticulospinal D) vestibulospinal E) tectospinal

Axons that decussate between the pyramids of the medulla oblongata belong to the ________ tracts. A) anterior corticospinal B) lateral corticospinal C) vestibulospinal D) reticulospinal E) rubrospinal

The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the A) vestibular nuclei. B) reticular formation. C) superior colliculi. D) inferior colliculi. E) mammillary bodies.

Tracts of the lateral and medial pathways include all of the following except ________ tracts. A) corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal

Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) spinal

Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the A) fasciculus gracilis. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) reticulospinal tract. E) anterior spinothalamic.

Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons. A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somesthetic

A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected? A) corticospinal tract B) tectospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract D) corticobulbar tract E) reticulospinal tract

Conscious and subconscious motor commands control skeletal muscles by traveling over all of the following except the A) corticospinal pathway. B) medial pathway. C) lateral pathway. D) corticobulbar pathway. E) spinothalamic pathway.

Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect A) perception of pain. B) sight. C) voluntary motor activity. D) hearing. E) both perception of pain and voluntary motor activity.

Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with oneʹs ability to A) position the arms. B) monitor body position. C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises. D) control motor units located in the leg. E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements.

Upper motor neuron cell bodies originate in all the following except A) precentral gyrus. B) postcentral gyrus. C) vestibular nuclei. D) red nuclei of the midbrain. E) superior and inferior colliculi.

Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the largest motor units? A) tongue B) nose C) hands D) lower limbs E) larynx

Increased production and release of acetylcholine by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in A) flaccid paralysis. B) spastic, uncontrolled muscle contractions. C) decreased activity of upper motor neurons. D) fewer action potentials along the corticospinal tracts. E) muscular atrophy.

Complex motor activities such as riding a bicycle A) only require neural processing at the level of the cerebrum. B) with practice, involve little input from the brain. C) require the coordinated activity of several regions of the brain. D) are largely controlled at the level of the spinal cord. E) usually escape notice by the cerebellum.

The medial and lateral motor pathways can modify, or direct, skeletal muscle contractions by ________ lower motor neurons. A) stimulating B) facilitating C) inhibiting D) controlling E) All of the answers are correct.

The cerebellum relies on information from all of the following except A) the eyes. B) the inner ear. C) proprioceptive sensations. D) upper motor neurons. E) lower motor neurons.

The cerebellum A) functions to maintain proper posture and equilibrium. B) receives input from the motor cortex and basal nuclei. C) compares intended movement to actual movement. D) if damaged, leads to uncoordinated and jerky movements. The cerebellum E) all answers are correct

Which part(s) of the following statement is/are true? If the primary motor cortex is destroyed, fine control of movement will be lost, but movement may not be lost completely because the medial and lateral pathways can still provide coarse motor control. A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false. B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true. C) Both parts of the statements are true. D) Both parts of the statements are false.

Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of A) Parkinsonʹs disease. B) rabies. C) Alzheimerʹs disease. D) myasthenia gravis. E) tetanus.

Alzheimerʹs disease is characterized by all of the following except that it A) is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory. C) has a clear genetic basis. D) is associated with the formation of plaques. E) may be associated with damage to the hippocampus.

Parkinsonʹs disease is the result of A) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the midbrain.

Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain. A) referred B) phantom C) psychogenic D) somatic E) neurogenic

Name the three primary brain vesicles. (Module 13.1A) A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon B) prosencephalon, diencephalon, triencephalon C) diencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon D) diencephalon, telencephalon, metencephalon E) mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon

Which structures form the secondary brain vesicles? (Module 13.1B) A) metencephalon and myelencephalon B) diencephalon and triencephalon C) diencephalon and telencephalon D) diencephalon and prosencephalon E) prosencephalon and rhombencephalon

Which embryonic brain vesicle develops into the largest region of the adult brain? (Module 13.1C) A) diencephalon B) telencephalon C) myelencephalon D) metencephalon E) mesencephalon

Describe the role of the medulla oblongata. (Module 13.2A) A) The medulla oblongata functions in conscious thought, memory storage and processing, and regulating skeletal muscle contractions. B) The medulla oblongata contains centers involved with emotions, autonomic function, and hormone production. C) The medulla oblongata relays sensory information to other parts of the brainstem and to the thalamus. It also contains centers that regulate autonomic functions, such as heart rate and blood pressure. D) The medulla oblongata coordinates and modulates motor commands coming from the cerebral cortex. E) The medulla oblongata processes visual and auditory information and controls reflexes triggered by those stimuli.

256) Which region of the brain contains two ventricles? (Module 13.2B) A) diencephalon B) cerebellum C) midbrain D) cerebrum E) brainstem

Which region of the brain is enclosed or hidden by the cerebrum? (Module 13.2D) A) cerebellum B) diencephalon C) midbrain D) pons E) medulla oblongata

What brain tissues have tight junctions? (Module 13.3B) A) microglial cells B) astrocyte processes around the pia matter C) ependymal cells of each choroid plexus D) Schwann cells around each neuron E) oligodendrocytes around each neuron

How would decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations affect the volume of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles? (Module 13.3C) A) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would decrease the volume of CSF in the ventricles because less CSF would reenter the bloodstream. B) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would decrease the volume of CSF in the ventricles because more CSF would reenter the bloodstream. C) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would increase the volume of CSF in the ventricles because less CSF would reenter the bloodstream. D) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would increase the volume of CSF in the ventricles because more CSF would reenter the bloodstream. E) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would not change the volume of CSF because the amount of CSF reentering the bloodstream can accommodate for the changes.

Describe the pyramids of the medulla oblongata and a decussation. (Module 13.4A) A) The pyramids contains tracts of sensory fibers that originate at the cerebral cortex. Some of the sensory fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. B) The pyramids contains tracts of sensory fibers that originate at the spinal cord. Some of the sensory fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. C) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the cerebral cortex. Some of the motor fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. D) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the spinal cord. Some of the motor fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. E) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the spinal cord. All of the motor fibers stay on the same side of the medulla oblongata and that is called a decussation.

Which medulla oblongata components relay somatic sensory information to the thalamus? (Module 13.4B) A) inferior olivary complex B) gracile nucleus and cuneate nucleus C) reticular formation D) ascending tracts within the funiculi E) descending tracts within the funiculi

What is the function of the ascending and descending tracts in the medulla oblongata? (Module 13.4C) A) to link the brain with the spinal cord B) to regulate vital autonomic functions C) they contain sensory and motor nuclei of five cranial nerves D) to relay somatic information to the thalamus E) to relay information to the red nucleus

identify the components of the cerebellar gray matter. (Module 13.6A) A) arbor vitae B) cerebellar nuclei C) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei D) cerebellar peduncles E) transverse pontine fibers

Describe the arbor vitae, including its makeup, location, and function. (Module 13.6B) A) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that connects the cerebellum with the midbrain, diencephalon, and cerebrum. B) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that carries communications between the cerebellum and pons. C) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that links the cerebellum with the medulla oblongata and spinal cord. D) The arbor vitae is gray matter of the cerebellum that interconnects pontine nuclei with the opposite cerebellar hemisphere. E) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that connects the cerebellar cortex and nuclei with cerebellar peduncles.

Identify the sensory nuclei contained within the corpora quadrigemina. (Module 13.7A) A) cerebral peduncles B) anterior colliculi and posterior colliculi C) superior colliculi and inferior colliculi D) red nuclei and substantia nigra E) reticular formation and red nuclei

Give the functions of the superior colliculi and inferior colliculi. (Module 13.7B) A) The superior colliculi control the reflex movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual stimuli. The inferior colliculi control the reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. B) The superior colliculi control the reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. The inferior colliculi control the reflex movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual stimuli. C) The superior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the head, neck, and trunk. The inferior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the limbs. D) The superior colliculi provide subconscious control of upper limb position and background muscle tone. The inferior colliculi processes incoming sensations and outgoing motor commands automatically and helps maintain consciousness. E) The superior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the limbs. The inferior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the head, neck, and trunk.

Which cranial nerves arise from the brainstem? (Module 13.7C) A) I and II B) All the purely sensory nerves arise from the brainstem. C) All the purely motor nerves arise from the brainstem. D) III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, XI, X, XI, XII E) All the cranial nerves arise from the brainstem.

What part of the midbrain influences the activity of the entire nervous system? (Module 13.7D) A) cerebral peduncles B) substantia nigra C) superior colliculi and inferior colliculi D) red nuclei E) reticular activating system (RAS), a part of the reticular formation

Damage to the lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus would interfere with what particular function? (Module 13.8A) A) Damage would interfere with the flow of somatic sensations and thus affect the sense of touch. B) Damage would interfere with the flow of auditory information and thus affect the sense of hearing. C) Damage would interfere with the flow of visual information and thus affect the sense of sight. D) Damage would interfere with the limbic system and thus affect emotional processing. E) Damage would interfere with the release of melatonin and thus affect circadian rhythms.

Which component of the diencephalon is stimulated by changes in body temperature? (Module 13.8B) A) choroid plexus of the epithalamus B) pineal gland C) ventral nuclei of the thalamus D) preoptic area of the hypothalamus E) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus

What are some functions of the amygdaloid body? (Module 13.9B) A) The amygdaloid body produces oxytocin and ADH and helps control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. B) The amygdaloid body plays a role in regulating heart rate, controlling the ʺfight or flightʺ response, and in linking emotions with specific memories. C) The amygdaloid body plays a role in learning, especially in the storage and retrieval of long-term memories. D) The amygdaloid body is a tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus. E) The amygdaloid body is responsible for heightened alertness and generalized excitement or generalized lethargy and sleep.

Which region of the limbic system is particularly important for the storage and retrieval of long-term memories? (Module 13.9C) A) fornix B) amygdaloid body C) hippocampus D) mammillary body E) cingulate gyrus

Define basal nuclei. (Module 13.10A) A) The basal nuclei produce oxytocin and ADH and help control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. B) The basal nuclei play a role in regulating heart rate, controlling the ʺfight or flightʺ response, and in linking emotions with specific memories. C) The basal nuclei are masses of cerebral gray matter that function in the subconscious control of skeletal muscle activity and help coordinate learned movement patterns. D) The basal nuclei are masses of cerebral gray matter that processes sensory information and influences emotional states. E) The basal nuclei are responsible for heightened alertness and generalized excitement or generalized lethargy and sleep.

Describe the function of the caudate nucleus. (Module 13.10B) A) The caudate nucleus is involved with sensory input from various somatic sensory receptors. B) The caudate nucleus is involved with indirect modification of movement by output to the cerebral cortex. C) The caudate nucleus is involved with speech production. D) The caudate nucleus is involved with the subconscious adjustment and modification of skeletal muscle activity. E) The caudate nucleus is involved in the direct control of voluntary movements by controlling somatic motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord.

What signs and symptoms would be present in a person who has basal nuclei damage? (Module 13.10C) A) They would exhibit decreased muscle tone and loss of coordinated movement. B) They would be unable to move any skeletal muscle. C) They would be unable to taste and smell. D) They would be unable to recognize sounds, such as spoken words. E) They would be unable to control autonomic functions, such as controlling heart rate and blood pressure.

Describe the insula. (Module 13.11B) A) The insula is a collection of fasciculi that connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same cerebral hemisphere. B) The insula is an island of cerebral cortex located medial to the lateral sulcus. C) The insula is a band of commissural fibers between the left and right cerebral hemispheres. D) The insula is a region anterior to the central sulcus and contains the primary motor cortex. E) The insula is posterior to the central sulcus and contains the primary somatosensory cortex.

What effect would damage to the left postcentral gyrus produce? (Module 13.11C) A) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with sensory information awareness from the right side of the body. B) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with sensory information awareness from the left side of the body. C) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with voluntary movement of the right side of the body. D) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with voluntary movement of the left side of the body. E) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with both sensory information awareness and voluntary movement of the left side of the body.

Where is the primary motor cortex located? (Module 13.12A) A) temporal lobe of the cerebrum B) occipital lobe of the cerebrum C) parietal lobe of the cerebrum D) precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum E) postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum

Which senses are affected by damage to the temporal lobes? (Module 13.12B) A) visual and auditory B) visual and olfactory C) auditory and olfactory D) visual and gustatory E) olfactory and gustatory

Which brain region has been affected in a stroke victim who is unable to speak? (Module 13.12C) A) primary auditory cortex B) auditory association area C) Wernickeʹs area D) prefrontal cortex E) Brocaʹs area

What is the function of the longitudinal fasciculi? (Module 13.13A) A) connect one gyrus to another B) connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same hemisphere C) connect the cerebral hemispheres D) connect the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord E) connect the cerebral cortex to the cerebellar cortex

What special names are given to axons in the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres? (Module 13.13B) A) nuclei B) nerves C) ganglia D) tracts E) association fibers, commissural fibers, and projection fibers

285) Which cranial nerves are involved with the eye? (Module 13.15A) A) optic and vestibulocochlear nerves B) facial, trigeminal, and accessory nerves C) trigeminal, abducens, facial, vagus, and accessory nerves D) optic, oculomotor, abducens, and troclear nerves E) optic, trigeminal, facial, and accessory nerves

Which cranial nerves have motor functions only? (Module 13.15B) A) oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves B) olfactory, optic, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves C) vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves D) trochlear, trigeminal, and facial nerves E) oculomotor, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vagus, and accessory nerves

Relate receptive field size to stimulus localization. (Module 13.16B) A) The smaller the receptive field, the harder it is to localize an area of stimulus. B) The smaller the receptive field, the easier it is to localize an area of stimulus. C) The larger the receptive field, the easier it is to localize an area of stimulus.

List the four types of general sensory receptors based on function, and identify the type of stimulus that excites each type. (Module 13.17A) A) nociceptors (temperature), thermoreceptors (pain), mechanoreceptors (physical distortion), and chemoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids) B) nociceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids), thermoreceptors (physical distortion), mechanoreceptors (pain), and chemoreceptors (temperature) C) nociceptors (physical distortion), thermoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids), mechanoreceptors (pain), and chemoreceptors (temperature) D) nociceptors (temperature), thermoreceptors (physical distortion), mechanoreceptors (temperature), and chemoreceptors (pain) E) nociceptors (pain), thermoreceptors (temperature), mechanoreceptors (physical distortion), and chemoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids)

Describe the three classes of mechanoreceptors. (Module 13.17B) A) proprioceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; baroreceptors, which detect changes in pressure; and tactile receptors, which respond to the sense of touch B) proprioceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; baroreceptors, which detect changes in pressure; and tactile receptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles C) proprioceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; baroreceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; and tactile receptors, which detect changes in pressure D) proprioceptors, which detect changes in pressure; baroreceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; and tactile receptors, which respond to the sense of touch E) proprioceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; baroreceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; and tactile receptors, which detect changes in pressure

Explain adaptation, and differentiate between peripheral adaptation and central adaptation. (Module 13.17C) A) Adaptation is an increase in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation reduces the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. B) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation reduces the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. C) Adaptation is an increase in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation increases the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus is enhanced. D) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation increases the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus is enhanced. E) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant simulation. In peripheral adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. Central adaptation reduces the amount of information received by the CNS.

Which is likely to be more sensitive to continuous deep pressure: a lamellar corpuscle or a bulbous corpuscle? (Module 13.18B) A) lamellar corpuscle B) bulbous corpuscle

Which spinal tracts carry action potentials generated by nociceptors? (Module 13.19B) A) anterior spinothalamic tracts B) posterior spinothalamic tracts C) lateral spinothalamic tracts D) posterior column pathway E) spinocerebellar pathway

Describe the role of the corticobulbar tracts. (Module 13.20A) A) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that carry information or commands from the sensory nuclei in the brainstem to the cerebral cortex. B) Corticobulbar tracts are descending tracts that carry information or commands from the cerebral cortex to motor nuclei in the brainstem. C) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that carry sensory information from the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex. D) Corticobulbar tracts are descending tracts that carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. E) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that receive sensory information from the internal ear about the position and movement of the head.

Define corticospinal tracts. (Module 13.20B) A) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that carry information or commands from the sensory nuclei in the brainstem to the cerebral cortex. B) Corticospinal tracts are descending tracts that carry information or commands from the cerebral cortex to motor nuclei in the brainstem. C) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that carry sensory information from the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex. D) Corticospinal tracts are descending tracts that carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. E) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that receive sensory information from the internal ear about the position and movement of the head.

What effect would increased stimulation of the motor neurons of the red nucleus have on muscle tone? (Module 13.20C) A) It would increase stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby increasing their muscle tone. B) It would increase stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby decreasing their muscle tone. C) It would decrease stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby increasing their muscle tone. D) It would decrease stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby decreasing their muscle tone. E) It would not affect skeletal muscle tone.

Which brain regions control reflexes in response to visual and auditory stimuli that are experienced while viewing a movie? (Module 13.21A) A) cerebral cortex and basal nuclei B) basal nuclei and hypothalamus C) thalamus and midbrain D) pons and medulla oblongata E) brainstem and spinal cord

The basic reflex motor patterns related to eating and drinking are controlled by which region of the brain? (Module 13.21B) A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) midbrain D) hypothalamus E) pons

Define referred pain. (Module 13.22A) A) Referred pain is somatic pain sensations from the skin. B) Referred pain is visceral pain sensations that can be well localized. C) Referred pain is when thermoreceptors detect temperature extremes that cause a painful sensation. D) Referred pain is when nociceptors send impulse of pain that is not actually there. E) Referred pain is a sensation felt in a part of the body other than its actual source.

Describe amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). (Module 13.22C) A) ALS is a progressive disorder characterized by loss of higher-order cerebral functions and is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) ALS is a progressive degeneration of the motor neurons of the CNS, leading to muscle atrophy and eventual paralysis. C) ALS is a disease of the CNS characterized by recurrent incidents of demyelination that affects axons in the optic nerve, brain, and spinal cord. D) ALS results when the neurons of the substantia nigra are damaged or secrete less dopamine and the basal nuclei become more active causing muscle rigidity and stiffness. E) ALS is a nonprogressive loss of motor function that appears during infancy or childhood and persists throughout the personʹs lifetime.

Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?

A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage?

Bellʹs palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent?

What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli that excite each type?

What are differences and similarities between ʺcrudeʺ touch and ʺfineʺ touch sensations?

While playing lacrosse, Frank took a blow to the back of his neck. This caused swelling of the posterior spinal cord at C7 and T1. What tract lies in this area? What signs might you expect Frank to show while the swelling persists?

Compare the corpus callosum with the septum pellucidum.

List the four groups of pontine structures.

Describe ataxia

List the primary functions of the limbic system.

Name and describe the four wave types associated with an EEG

Differentiate between a seizure and epilepsy.

During a tennis match, you decide how and where to hit the ball. Explain how the premotor cortex is involved in your decisions.