Ch 10 Practice Questions

4 September 2022
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1. The study of the muscular system is known as A. kinesiology. B. pathophysiology. C. myology. D. biology. E. neurology
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C. myology.
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All of the following are functions of muscles except A. stability. B. heat production. C. control of openings. D. secretion. E. respiration.
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D. secretion.
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. What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator? A. fixators B. antagonists C. synergists D. prime movers E. depressors
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B. antagonists
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Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called A. compartments. B. fascicles. C. retinacula. D. aponeuroses. E. groups.
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B. fascicles.
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Which of the following describes an appearance of red muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon? A. fleshy attachment B. indirect attachment C. inverted attachment D. insertion E. origin
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A. fleshy attachment
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The rectus femoris is what muscle shape? A. fusiform B. parallel C. triangular D. elongated E. pennate
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E. pennate
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What separates groups of muscles? A. epimysium B. fascicles C. perimysium D. fascia E. endomysium
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D. fascia
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Which term below best describes the deltoid? A. fusiform B. intrinsic C. involuntary D. extrinsic E. parallel
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D. extrinsic
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Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction? A. prime movers B. antagonists C. synergists D. fixators E. adductors
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C. synergists
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. The semitendinosus is an example of what muscle shape? A. triangular B. fusiform C. sphincter D. convergent E. pennate
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B. fusiform
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Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation? A. internal intercostals B. external intercostals C. diaphragm D. stylohyoid E. hyoglossus
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C. diaphragm
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. Which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial? A. trapezius B. semispinalis capitis C. splenius capitis D. sternocleidomastoid E. temporalis
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A. trapezius
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The occipitalis and frontalis are connected via the A. galea retinaculum. B. galea aponeurotica. C. galea cranium. D. galea orbicularis. E. galea neurotica.
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B. galea aponeurotica
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Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve? A. orbicularis oculi B. zygomaticus major C. corrugator supercilii D. levator palpebrae superioris E. buccinator
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D. levator palpebrae superioris
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A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is called the A. retinaculum. B. aponeurotica. C. modiolus. D. nuchal line. E. galea.
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C. modiolus.
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. The ________ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible. A. masseter B. buccinator C. temporalis D. genioglossus E. stylohyoid
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A. masseter
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Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)? A. zygomaticus major B. digastric C. sternohyoid D. depressor anguli oris E. hyoglossus
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B. digastric
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What is(are) the innervation(s) of the palatoglossus? A. hypoglossal nerve B. accessory nerve C. vagus nerve D. hypoglossal and accessory nerves E. accessory and vagal nerves
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E. accessory and vagal nerves
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Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation? A. temporalis B. lateral pterygoid C. stylohyoid D. zygomaticus major E. zygomaticus minor
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A. temporalis
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The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the ________ at its inferior margin. A. linea alba B. rectus sheath C. linea semilunaris D. medial retinaculum E. inguinal ligament
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E. inguinal ligament
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The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the A. transverse abdominal. B. internal oblique. C. rectus abdominis. D. latissimus dorsi. E. pectoralis minor.
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A. transverse abdominal.
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While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles? A. tibialis anterior B. erector spinae C. semimembranosus D. tibialis anterior and semimembranosus E. extensor hallucis longus
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B. erector spinae
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Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? A. transverse abdominal B. latissimus dorsi C. trapezius D. pectoralis major E. external abdominal oblique
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A. transverse abdominal
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Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes ipsilateral flexion of the lumbar vertebral column? A. multifidus B. latissimus dorsi C. external intercostals D. serratus anterior E. quadratus lumborum
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E. quadratus lumborum
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In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the ___ in order to avoid muscle strain in the lower back. A. biceps brachii and brachialis B. gastrocnemius and soleus C. external and internal abdominal obliques D. knee and hip extensors E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi
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D. knee and hip extensors
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In a whiplash injury, the neck undergoes forced hyperextension then hyperflexion, injuring multiple muscles in the neck. Which of the following muscles would be injured during the hyperextension phase of the injury? A. trapezius B. splenius capitis C. sternocleidomastoid D. semispinalis capitis E. levator scapulae
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C. sternocleidomastoid
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Tendinous intersections divide the _______ into segments externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person. A. vastus lateralis B. serratus anterior C. rectus abdominis D. quadriceps femoris E. transverse abdominal
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C. rectus abdominis
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. The rectus abdominis is a(n) ________ muscle, while the rectus femoris is a(n) ______ muscle. A. fusiform; parallel B. parallel; bipennate C. convergent; unipennate D. bipennate; parallel E. multipennate; convergent
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B. parallel; bipennate
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Which of the following correctly states the origin and insertion of the sternocleidomastoid? A. sternal manubrium and lateral one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line B. sternal manubrium and medial half of clavicle; mastoid process and medial one-third of superior nuchal line C. sternal manubrium and medial one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line D. sternal manubrium and lateral half of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral one-third of superior nuchal line E. mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line; sternal manubrium, medial one-third of clavicle
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C. sternal manubrium and medial one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line
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The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the A. trapezius and serratus anterior. B. pectoralis minor and serratus anterior. C. levator scapulae and rhomboideus. D. trapezius and rhomboideus. E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi.
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A. trapezius and serratus anterior.
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Which cranial nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius? A. abducens nerve B. facial nerve C. vagus nerve D. accessory nerve E. trigeminal nerve
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D. accessory nerve
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Which muscle of respiration is innervated by the phrenic nerve? A. diaphragm B. external intercostals C. internal intercostals D. innermost intercostals E. pectoralis major
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A. diaphragm
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After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar? A. depressor anguli oris B. orbicularis oris C. levator labii superioris D. platysma E. quadriceps femoris
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B. orbicularis oris
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Which muscle originates at the manubrium, inserts on the thyroid cartilage, and aids in singing low notes? A. omohyoid B. thyrohyoid C. sternothyroid D. stylohyoid E. lateral pterygoid
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C. sternothyroid
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Some people suffer involuntary urination because of incompetence of what muscle? A. external urethral sphincter B. bulbospongiosus C. compressor urethrae D. ischiocavernosus E. levator ani
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A. external urethral sphincter
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True or False: A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels. A. False, muscles of defecation are innervated only by the pudendal nerve. B. True, the external anal sphincter is innervated by the 3rd and 4th sacral nerves. C. False, the levator ani is the only muscle used for compressing the anal canal. D. True, the coccygeus is innervated by the 3rd and 4th sacral nerves and assists the levator ani. E. False, the external anal sphincter is not innervated by the pudendal nerve.
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D. True, the coccygeus is innervated by the 3rd and 4th sacral nerves and assists the levator ani.
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A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle? A. supraspinatus B. infraspinatus C. teres minor D. subscapularis E. deltoid
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A. supraspinatus
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Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapulae? A. It is innervated by the phrenic nerve. B. It elevates the scapula if the scapula is fixed. C. It rotates the scapula and depresses the apex of the shoulder. D. It flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed. E. It protracts the scapula if the humerus is fixed.
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D. It flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed.
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. Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the hand? A. extensor carpi radialis brevis B. adductor pollicis C. extensor pollicis longus D. extensor indicis E. abductor pollicis longus
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B. adductor pollicis
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The serratus anterior is innervated by which nerve? A. accessory nerve B. dorsal scapular nerve C. long thoracic nerve D. lateral pectoral nerve E. axillary nerve
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C. long thoracic nerve
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Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration? A. pectoralis major B. latissimus dorsi C. teres minor D. diaphragm E. deltoid
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A. pectoralis major
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A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the A. flexor pollicis longus tendon. B. flexor carpi ulnaris tendon. C. palmaris longus tendon. D. adductor pollicis. E. flexor digitorum profundus tendon.
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E. flexor digitorum profundus tendon.
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When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region? A. pronator quadratus B. semimembranosus C. pronator teres D. buccinator E. supinator
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C. pronator teres
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The antagonist for the triceps brachii is the A. deltoid. B. anconeus. C. biceps brachii. D. supinator. E. teres minor.
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C. biceps brachii.
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. Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum? A. It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand. B. It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb. C. It directly inserts on all digits of the hand. D. It directly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb. E. It directly inserts on the index finger only.
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B. It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.
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Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to which of the following? A. extensor hallucis longus B. pronator quadratus C. extensor carpi radialis longus D. subscapularis E. flexor digitorum profundus
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C. extensor carpi radialis longus
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An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles? A. abductor digiti minimi B. abductor pollicis brevis C. flexor carpi radialis D. brachioradialis E. extensor indicis
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A. abductor digiti minimi
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. Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure? A. palmar aponeurosis B. extensor retinaculum C. flexor retinaculum D. extensor aponeurosis E. median nerve
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C. flexor retinaculum
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The longest muscle in the human body is the A. iliopsoas. B. sartorius. C. erector spinae. D. semitendinosus. E. semimembranosus.
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B. sartorius.
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Which of the following muscles is in the medial compartment of the thigh? A. soleus B. adductor longus C. piriformis D. vastus medialis E. semimembranosus
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B. adductor longus
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Which muscle(s) in the figure insert(s) on the head of the fibula? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
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D. 4
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Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) innervated by the tibial nerve? A. 1 B. 2 and 4 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 3 E. 1, 2 and 3
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C. 2, 4 and 5
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Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) responsible for medially rotating the tibia? A. 1 B. 1, 2 and 5 C. 1 and 2 D. 3, 4 and 5 E. 3 and 5
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B. 1, 2 and 5
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Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) responsible for abducting and medially rotating the thigh? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
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C. 3
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Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) innervated by the obturator nerve? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
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A. 1
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True or False: Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes. A. True, the deep fibular nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg. B. True, the deep fibular nerve innervates the gastrocnemius, which plantar flexes the foot. C. True, the deep fibular nerve innervates the quadratus plantae. D. False, the deep fibular nerve innervates muscles of plantar flexion. E. False, the deep fibular nerve is located in the upper limb.
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A. True, the deep fibular nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg.
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True or False: The triceps surae consists of three muscles in the lower limb. A. True, the triceps surae consists of the tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior, and fibularis. B. True, the triceps surae consists of the fibularis, extensor digitorum longus, and extensor hallucis longus. C. False, the triceps surae consists of the gastrocnemius and soleus. D. False the triceps surae is located on the posterior humerus and is an antagonist to the biceps brachii. E. False, the triceps surae consists of four muscles.
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C. False, the triceps surae consists of the gastrocnemius and soleus.
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. A clinician induces contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus and notices that the foot does not plantar flex as expected. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis? A. peroneal nerve injury B. ruptured calcaneal tendon C. anterior compartment syndrome D. shinsplints E. lateral plantar nerve injury
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B. ruptured calcaneal tendon
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A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot. After weeks of care, he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot. A logical diagnosis would be A. atrophy of the flexor hallucis brevis. B. atrophy of the fibularis brevis. C. atrophy of the soleus. D. atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi. E. atrophy of the adductor hallucis.
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D. atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi.
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A heavyset middle-aged insurance salesman who doesn't exercise often accepts his friend's invitation to a pickup basketball game. When attempting a jump shot, he falls to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg. There is an enormous bulge in his leg immediately below the knee, and he is unable to plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his ___ and the bulge is ___. A. quadriceps tendon; his rectus femoris B. calcaneal tendon; his triceps surae C. patellar ligament; his fibularis longus D. tibia; a previously undetected bone tumor E. hamstrings; a large hematoma (blood clot)
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B. calcaneal tendon; his triceps surae
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An Olympic sprinter readies for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forward from the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured? A. gluteus maximus B. popliteus C. biceps femoris D. gastrocnemius E. iliopsoas
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C. biceps femoris
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After childbirth a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. She has difficulty walking due to the pain. An X-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired? A. hip flexors B. thigh abductors C. hip extensors D. later rotators E. thigh adductors
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E. thigh adductors
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A skydiver's parachute fails to deploy. After some struggle, his reserve chute deploys in time to save his life. However, his landing is harder than normal and he feels his knee slightly hyperextend. He shakes it off and goes about his normal routine. Later that day he begins experiencing knee pain. Two days later he notices that his knee "pops" when he crouches and soon discovers he has dislocated his femur on the knee. What muscle was likely injured initially? A. popliteus B. tensor fasciae latae C. soleus D. sartorius E. quadriceps femoris
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A. popliteus
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A skateboarder falls and lands directly on his buttocks and lower back. He does not feel too much pain and so he continues skating. After a couple of days he begins experiencing right hip pain and notices his right foot and leg are rotated to the right. A doctor diagnoses muscle spasm. Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the leg and foot rotation? A. quadratus lumborum B. tibialis posterior C. piriformis D. adductor longus E. sacrospinalis
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C. piriformis