1. The innate response resists a particular foreign agent; moreover, innate immune responses improve on repeated exposure to the agent.
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FALSE
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2. Blood cell development occurs in the bone marrow of mammals during the process of
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B. hematopoesis.
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3. Substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke immune responses are called
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B. antigens.
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4. Which of the following is a physical barrier in the nonspecific defense of a mammalian host?
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D. mucous membranes
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5. The lungs are protected from microorganisms by
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D. all of the choices
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6. Tears protect the eyes by
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A. flushing and
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7. Under normal circumstances, which of the following is(are) normally sterile environments in mammals?
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D. all of these
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8. Which of the following is used to help protect the lungs from infection?
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D. all of the choices
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9. Lysozyme is an enzyme that lyses
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C. bacteria.
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10. The skin surface (epidermis) is a very favorable environment for colonization by microorganisms.
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FALSE
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11. The lower genitourinary tract is usually free of microorganisms.
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FALSE
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15. The mucociliary blanket is found in the digestive system of mammals.
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FALSE
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16. ____________ are a group of cytokines produced by some eukaryotic cells in response to a viral infection.
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Interferons
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17. _____________ is a process by which microorganisms or other particles are coated by serum components, preparing them for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells.
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Opsonization
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18. Lectin binds to certain carbohydrates to begin the activation of the classical complement pathway.
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FALSE
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21. The alternative complement pathway plays an important role in innate immunity, but it is not an effective defense against intravascular invasion by bacteria and some fungi.
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FALSE
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22. Human fevers are commonly caused by viral or bacterial infections, and in almost every instance fever results from an exogenous pyrogen produced by the microorganism or virus.
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FALSE
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23. Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) include
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D. two of the choices
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24. A fever augments the host's defenses by
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D. all of these
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25. Which of the following is considered to be a biological defense mechanism?
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D. normal microbiota
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26. Which of the following pathways for complement activation is generally dependent upon the formation of antigen-antibody complexes?
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A. The classical pathway.
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27. Complement mediated lysis is achieved by
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B. entry of lysozyme into gram-negative bacteria.
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28. Which of the following is not a way in which fever augments the host's defenses?
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A. Inhibition of the parasite's growth by raising the temperature above the optimum growth temperature.
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29. Complement
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D. both augments opsonization of bacteria by antibodies and results in lysis of Gram-negative bacteria
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30. Cytokines
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D. play key roles in both specific and non-specific immunity and are required for regulation of the immune response.
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31. The alternate complement pathway plays an important role in
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A. innate immunity.
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32. Which of the following is (are) way(s) that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism?
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D. All of these are ways that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism.
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33. Macrophage
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D. all of the choices
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34. Dendritic cells
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C. are capable of recognizing specific pathogen-associated molecular patterns and play an important role in non-specific resistance.
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35. Which of the following releases histamine?
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D. mast cells and basophils
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36. Lymphocytes are comprised of which of the following cell types?
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D. all of the choices
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37. Macrophages are derived from
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D. monocytes.
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38. Macrophages have surface receptors for all of the following except
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E. macrophages have receptors for all of the choices.
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39. Eosinophils defend against protist and helminth parasites by
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D. releasing cationic proteins and reactive oxygen metabolites.
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40. Which of the following remain in the blood circulation rather than taking up residence in other tissues?
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C. neutrophils
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41. Which of the following cell types migrates to the lymphoid tissue after encountering pathogens in the skin or the mucous membranes?
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B. dendritic cells.
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42. A mature activated B cell is called a(n)
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A. plasma cell.
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43. Natural killer cells specifically kill which of the following?
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A. Tumor cells and cells infected by microorganisms.
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44. The average adult has approximately 100,000 leukocytes per mm3of blood.
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FALSE
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45. T cells undergo maturation in the bone marrow.
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FALSE
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46. Lymphoid tissues are always highly organized cellular complexes.
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FALSE
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48. An intraepidermal lymphocyte migrates to a lymph node and matures into a dendritic cell after phagocytosing an antigen.
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FALSE
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49. GALT is an acronym that stands for: Glial Associated Lymphoid Target.
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FALSE
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50. In birds, the __________ of Fabricius is where B cells undergo maturation.
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bursa
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51. The ________ is a large organ in the abdominal cavity that specializes in filtering the blood and trapping blood-borne microorganisms and antigens.
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spleen
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52. A class of pathogen recognition receptors that function exclusively as signaling receptors are known as the ______________ receptors.
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Toll-like
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55. Phagocytosis leads to destruction of engulfed pathogens by which of the following mechanisms?
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A. Lysosomal mediated hydrolysis. .
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56. Opsonizing antibodies must be against __________ components if they are to effectively stimulate phagocytosis.
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A. surface
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57. During the acute inflammatory response, ____________ binds to receptors on the capillary wall to open junctions between the cells that allow fluid and leukocytes to enter the tissue.
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bradykinin
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59. During chronic inflammation when the macrophages are unable to protect the host from tissue damage, the body attempts to wall off and isolate the site by forming a(n)
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C. granuloma.
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1. The immune system normally discriminates between __________ antigens.
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A. self and nonself
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2. T cells attack
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D. all of the choices
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3. The humoral immune response defends against
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D. all of the choices
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4. T cells produce and secrete factors which do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but which augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called
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B. cytokines.
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5. Most antigens are monovalent.
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FALSE
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6. Each antigen has one antigenic determinant site or epitope.
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FALSE
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8. An immune complex resulting from an interaction of antibody with cells or particles which becomes large enough to settle out of solution is called a(n)
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A. agglutination reaction.
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9. Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that
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D. all of the choices
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10. The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of
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A. naturally acquired passive immunity.
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11. A vaccination is a good example of
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C. artificially acquired active immunity.
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12. Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of
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D. artificially acquired passive immunity.
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13. When an individual's immune system comes into contact with an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called
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B. naturally acquired active immunity.
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14. Antibodies can be produced
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D. all of the choices
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15. Class I and II MHC molecules
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A. consists of a complex of two protein chains.
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16. The major histocompatibility complex directs the production of proteins called
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D. both class I and class II.
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17. Class II major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on all of the following types of cells except
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A. T cells.
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18. Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ____________ cells.
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A. all nucleated
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19. Which of the following mediates inflammation by producing certain specific cytokines?
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B. TH1 cells
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20. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of
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A. CD8.
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21. If a T cell that has received signal 1 for activation fails to also receive signal 2 it may become
answer
A. anergic.
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22. Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells?
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D. all of the choices
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23. When a presented antigen fragment interacts with the T cell receptor of a helper T cell, the co-receptor that must also participate to finalize recognition is
answer
A. CD4.
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24. During activation of a T cell, the cytokine it produces to stimulate its own proliferation is
answer
C. interleukin 2.
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25. Superantigens cause
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B. stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines.
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26. Superantigens exert their damaging effects by
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B. causing the massive and non-specific release of cytokines by T cells.
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27. Cytotoxic T cells destroy target cells by
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E. both the perforin pathway and the CD95 pathway.
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28. In humans, the antigen-presenting cells include all of the following except
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A. eosinophils.
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29. The T cell receptor is comprised of
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A. alpha and beta protein chains
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31. T cells are so named because they mature in the thyroid.
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FALSE
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32. The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there
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A. secretion of antibody.
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33. Antigens that depend on the function of T-helper cells are called __________ antigens.
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T-dependent
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34. Molecules that stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically, causing the release of massive quantities of cytokines, which, in turn, can lead to tissue damage are called __________.
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superantigens
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35. Lipopolysaccharides are a common class of T-dependent antigens.
answer
FALSE
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36. Most known superantigens are glycolipids.
answer
FALSE
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37. One plasma cell can synthesize more than __________ antibody molecules per hour.
answer
D. 10,000,000
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38. Which of the following is not true concerning T-independent B cell activation?
answer
C. B cell receptors are not involved in activation.
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39. B cells are more effective than macrophages in presenting antigens to activate T cells when
A. This phase directly follows a primary challenge with an antigen. B. The antibody titer stabilizes. C. The antibody titer rises quickly. D. Antibodies are naturally metabolized. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
question
42. Matching 1) IgG 2) IgD 3) IgM 4) IgA
answer
A. Accounts for about 10% of the immunoglobulin pool. B. The major immunoglobulin in human serum. C. Has special features associated with secretory mucosal surfaces. D. Found in trace amounts in the serum. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
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43. The specific regions within the variable region of an antibody that are responsible for antibody diversity and antigen specificity are called __________ regions.
answer
hypervariable
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44. In an antibody molecule, the __________ region mediates binding to host cells.
answer
Fc
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45. In an antibody molecule, each loop of approximately 60 amino acids is called a __________.
answer
domain
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46. The changeover in production from IgM to IgG by an activated B cell is called a __________ __________ event.
answer
class switching
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47. The __________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.
answer
heavy
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49. Pentameric IgM activates complement up to 20-fold more effectively than does the hexameric form of IgM.
answer
FALSE
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50. A type of antibody light chain is the ___________ chain.
answer
B. lambda
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51. The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breast-feeding is
answer
A. IgA.
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52. The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is
answer
C. IgG.
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53. Which enzyme inserts nucleotides at the V-J junction to add further diversity?
answer
D. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
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54. Which of the following is not a function of the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin molecule?
answer
C. Binding to the antigen.
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55. Which of the following function(s) as the B cell antigen receptor?
answer
B. monomeric IgM
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56. The protein chains in a complete antibody molecule are connected to each other by ___________ bonds.
answer
C. disulfide
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57. The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because __________ during the secondary response.
answer
D. a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed
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58. Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum?
answer
B. IgG
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59. Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses?
answer
D. All of the choices.
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60. Which of the following prevents some bacteria from adhering to mucosal surfaces?
answer
B. IgA
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61. Antibodies
answer
D. both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction.
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62. Which of the following is (are) involved with an antigen binding to an antibody?
answer
D. All of these.
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63. The inability of a virus to bind to its target cell as a result of antibody binding to the virus is referred to as
answer
C. viral neutralization.
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64. Which of the following is/are true about monoclonal antibodies?
answer
D. All of the choices.
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65. Which of the following is not normally capable of virus neutralization?
answer
B. IgD
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66. Tumor cells of the immune system that produce large quantities of antibodies and can be readily cultivated are called
answer
A. myeloma cells.
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67. Which of the following antibodies is (are) involved in opsonization?
answer
D. only IgG1 and IgG3
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68. T-cell tolerance induced in the thymus and B-cell tolerance in the bone marrow is called peripheral tolerance.
answer
FALSE
question
69. Clonal deletion that removes lymphocytes that recognize any self antigens that are present is known as
answer
B. negative selection.
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70. Acquired immune tolerance is the body's ability to produce T cells and antibodies against antigens such as microbial antigens, while "tolerating" _________ ________.
answer
self antigens
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71. Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated?
answer
D. Type I
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72. __________ anaphylaxis is referred to as an atopic allergy.
answer
Localized
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73. Type III hypersensitivity conditions such as arthritis involve
answer
D. the formation of immune complexes.
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74. Type ___________ hypersensitivity is generally called a cytolytic or cytotoxic reaction because it results in the destruction of host cells, either by lysis or toxic mediators.
answer
II
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75. Type _________ hypersensitivity involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions.
answer
D. IV
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