Chapter 5 EMT

1. The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures. A. midline B. proximal C. superior D. midaxillary

2. The ___________ plane separates the body into left and right halves. A. sagittal B. coronal C. transverse D. midsagittal

3. A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the: A. proximal forearm. B. superior forearm. C. dorsal forearm. D. distal forearm.

4. A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. distal humerus fracture. B. proximal elbow fracture. C. distal forearm fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

5. The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline or center of the body is: A. lateral. B. medial. C. midaxillary. D. midclavicular.

6. The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is: A. dorsal. B. inferior. C. internal. D. superior.

7. In relation to the wrist, the elbow is: A. distal. B. medial. C. lateral. D. proximal.

8. In relation to the chest, the back is: A. ventral. B. inferior. C. anterior. D. posterior.

9. Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"? A. medial B. posterior C. palmar D. anterior

10. A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. What aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury? A. palmar B. plantar C. dorsal D. ventral

11. The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the left ventricles. A. apex B. base C. dorsum D. septum

12. Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called: A. flexion. B. extension. C. adduction. D. abduction.

13. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: A. medial. B. proximal. C. bilateral. D. unilateral.

14. Relative to the kidneys, the liver is: A. medial. B. dorsal. C. unilateral. D. posterior.

15. An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. dorsal B. supine C. prone D. recumbent

16. A patient in a semireclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position: A. prone B. supine C. Fowler's D. recovery

17. Trendelenburg's position is MOST accurately defined as a: A. recumbent position with the head lower than the legs. B. supine position with the legs elevated approximately 6" to 12". C. recumbent position with the head elevated at a 25° to 45° angle. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6" to 12" higher than the head.

18. The axial skeleton is composed of the: A. arms, legs, and pelvis. B. lower part of the torso and the legs. C. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. D. bones that comprise the pelvic girdle.

19. The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: A. foramen ovale. B. vertebral foramen. C. spinous foramen. D. foramen magnum.

20. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? A. mastoid B. maxilla C. mandible D. zygoma

21. The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. A. orbit B. occiput C. mastoid D. sphenoid

22. The atlas is the: A. point where the ribs attach to the sternum. B. seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable. C. first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull. D. attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae.

23. The cervical spine is composed of ___________ vertebrae. A. four B. five C. six D. seven

24. Twelve pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column? A. sacral B. lumbar C. thoracic D. coccyx

25. The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. A. sacrum B. coccyx C. lumbar D. thoracic

26. The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: A. ilium. B. coccyx. C. sacrum. D. ischium.

27. Select the areas of the spinal column in descending order. A. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccyx B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx C. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, sacral D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccyx

28. The most superior portion of the sternum is called the: A. manubrium. B. costal arch. C. angle of Louis. D. xiphoid process.

29. The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: A. sternal notch. B. xiphoid process. C. angle of Louis. D. jugular notch.

30. What three bones make up the shoulder girdle? A. clavicle, scapula, humerus B. acromion, clavicle, scapula C. acromion, scapula, humerus D. acromion, humerus, clavicle

31. The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. A. costal arch B. diaphragm C. mediastinum D. costovertebral angle

32. The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: A. glenoid. B. clavicle. C. scapula. D. acromion.

33. The bones of the forearm are called the: A. radius and ulna. B. tibia and radius. C. humerus and ulna. D. radius and humerus.

34. The supporting bone of the arm is the: A. ulna. B. humerus. C. radius. D. clavicle.

35. The carpal bones form the: A. foot. B. ankle. C. hand. D. wrist.

36. Each pelvic bone is formed by the fusion of the: A. sacrum and ischium. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. pubis and acetabulum. D. ilium, pubis, and sacrum.

37. The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: A. ilium. B. ischium. C. acetabulum. D. femoral condyle.

38. The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: A. iliac crest. B. sacroiliac joint. C. sacral symphysis. D. greater trochanter.

39. The bones that comprise the fingers and toes are called: A. carpals. B. metacarpals. C. phalanges. D. metatarsals

40. Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: A. tibia. B. patella. C. femur. D. calcaneus.

41. The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: A. lateral condyle. B. medial malleolus. C. Achilles tendon. D. lateral malleolus.

42. The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. A. hinge B. saddle C. gliding D. ball-and-socket

43. A person's bones would become brittle if he or she was deficient in: A. sodium. B. calcium. C. potassium. D. magnesium.

44. Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? A. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. B. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels. C. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle. D. Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.

45. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? A. blood vessels B. urinary system C. skeletal system D. gastrointestinal tract

46. Skeletal muscle is also called: A. smooth muscle. B. autonomic muscle. C. voluntary muscle. D. involuntary muscle.

47. A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: A. heat. B. oxygen. C. nitrogen. D. lactic acid.

48. Which of the following is a function of the upper airway? A. relaxes bronchiole smooth muscle B. exchanges oxygen and carbon dioxide C. creates sound from vocal cord vibration D. warms and humidifies inhaled air

49. The vocal cords are located in the: A. larynx. B. pharynx. C. oropharynx. D. nasopharynx

50. The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: A. uvula. B. epiglottis. C. vallecula. D. pharynx.

51. The firm cartilaginous ring that forms the inferior portion of the larynx is called the: A. costal cartilage. B. cricoid cartilage. C. thyroid cartilage. D. laryngo cartilage.

52. Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? A. three B. four C. five D. six

53. As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: A. pleura. B. alveoli. C. bronchi. D. capillaries.

54. The diaphragm is a unique muscle because it: A. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. B. does not receive impulses from the brain. C. is both a voluntary and involuntary muscle. D. does not have striations like skeletal muscle.

55. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: A. inhalation. B. exhalation. C. respiration. D. ventilation.

56. Negative pressure breathing involves: A. relaxing the respiratory muscles. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. D. increasing airway resistance during breathing.

57. How does respiration differ from ventilation? A. Ventilation occurs when air is forced into the lungs, whereas respiration occurs when air is drawn or sucked into the lungs. B. Respiration occurs when the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract, whereas ventilation occurs when those same muscles relax. C. Respiration occurs when oxygen is delivered to the cells of the body, whereas ventilation occurs when carbon dioxide is removed. D. Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the simple movement of air between the lungs and the environment.

58. Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: A. osmosis. B. breathing. C. diffusion. D. ventilation.

59. Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): A. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). B. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the CSF. C. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the CSF. D. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF.

60. Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? A. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. B. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm. C. The medulla's primary role is to increase your level of oxygen, not to decrease your level of carbon dioxide. D. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of CSF.

61. Relative to the adult's airway, the child's: A. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx. B. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. C. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible. D. mouth and nose are proportionately larger.

62. The backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. hypoxic drive. B. pneumotaxic drive. C. hypocarbic drive. D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

63. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) is a part of the brain stem and is responsible for: A. initiating inspiration. B. inhibiting deep inspiration. C. controlling expiration. D. decreasing respiratory depth.

64. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? A. seesaw respirations B. unequal breath sounds C. unequal chest expansion D. irregular breathing pattern

65. What function does the pneumotaxic center serve? A. stimulates the DRG, resulting in prolonged inspiration B. inhibits the DRG, but only affects the respiratory rate C. inhibits the DRG, resulting in shorter, faster respirations D. stimulates the DRG, resulting in longer, slower respirations

66. Both areas of the pons are used to: A. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. B. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress. C. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. D. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

67. The Hering-Breuer reflex is stimulated when: A. excess carbon dioxide needs to be eliminated from the body. B. stretch receptors in the chest wall detect that the lungs are too full. C. the DRG stops and the process of expiration begins. D. the brain stem senses that there is a low amount of oxygen in the blood.

68. The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called: A. tidal volume. B. residual volume. C. inspiratory reserve volume. D. expiratory reserve volume.

69. Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: A. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli. B. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. C. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. D. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

70. If an average-sized patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if his or her respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A. minute volume is decreased. B. inspiratory reserve is increased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

71. What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,200 mL D. 8,000 mL

72. Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a reduction in tidal volume. B. respirations of 20 breaths/min. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation.

73. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? A. use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis B. respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement

74. Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? A. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. B. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. C. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast irregular breaths.

75. The heart muscle is called the: A. epicardium. B. myocardium. C. pericardium. D. endocardium.

76. Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? A. It is under control of the autonomic nervous system. B. It can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes. C. It receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries. D. It relies on an external electrical source to correctly function.

77. The primary function of the right atrium is to: A. receive blood from the vena cava. B. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. C. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

78. Contraction of the right ventricle causes: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation. D. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation.

79. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. pulmonary veins. B. pulmonary arteries. C. inferior venae cavae. D. superior venae cavae.

80. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: A. 70 beats/min. B. 80 beats/min. C. 90 beats/min. D. 100 beats/min.

81. During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart. This is called stroke volume (SV). A. 40 to 50 mL B. 70 to 80 mL C. 90 to 100 mL D. 100 to 120 mL

82. Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: A. heart rate only. B. stroke volume only. C. stroke volume and heart rate. D. the patient's blood pressure.

83. The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. sinoatrial node. B. bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. atrioventricular node.

84. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? A. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. C. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

85. The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: A. aorta. B. carotid. C. brachial. D. femoral.

86. Which of the following are central pulses? A. femoral and carotid B. brachial and radial C. temporal and pedal D. popliteal and ulnar

87. Which of the following arteries does NOT carry highly oxygenated blood? A. aorta B. renal C. femoral D. pulmonary

88. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: A. ventral pedis. B. dorsalis pedis. C. anterior tibial. D. posterior tibial.

89. The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: A. venules. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. capillaries.

90. The descending aorta branches into the: A. deep femoral arteries. B. internal carotid arteries. C. common iliac arteries. D. external carotid arteries.

91. Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: A. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. B. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. C. high levels of oxygen remain in the cell and can cause significant damage. D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cell, but oxygen cannot enter.

92. Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: A. common iliac vein. B. coronary sinus vein. C. inferior vena cava. D. superior vena cava.

93. Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. pancreas.

94. Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? A. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. B. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. C. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. D. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins.

95. Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. A. monocytes B. erythrocytes C. leukocytes D. thrombocytes

96. White blood cells are also called leukocytes and function by: A. producing the body's erythrocytes. B. producing blood-clotting factors. C. protecting the body from infection. D. carrying oxygen and other nutrients.

97. What is the function of platelets? A. initial formation of a blood clot B. transport of oxygen and nutrients C. defense against invading organisms D. transport of cellular waste materials

98. The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: A. systole. B. diastole. C. cardiac output. D. stroke volume.

99. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" represents: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular filling. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular relaxation.

100. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her body. A. 3 L B. 4 L C. 5 L D. 6 L

101. The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: A. respiration. B. perfusion. C. metabolism. D. cardiac output.

102. ___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid and occurs when blood is moved through the artery at relatively high pressures. A. Hydrostatic B. Osmotic C. Oncotic D. Diffusion

103. Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

104. Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: A. increased heart rate. B. dilation of the blood vessels. C. increased cardiac contractility. D. constriction of the blood vessels.

105. An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of: A. beta-1 receptors. B. beta-2 receptors. C. alpha-1 receptors. D. alpha-2 receptors.

106. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: A. tachycardia. B. a strong pulse. C. vasoconstriction. D. a slow heart rate.

107. Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? A. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.

108. Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated exclusively by the: A. central nervous system. B. somatic nervous system. C. autonomic nervous system. D. involuntary nervous system.

109. The central nervous system is composed of the: A. brain and spinal cord. B. brain and sensory nerves. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. spinal cord and sensory nerves.

110. The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, EXCEPT: A. digestion. B. breathing. C. breath holding. D. vessel dilation.

111. The largest portion of the brain, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter," is called the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. diencephalon.

112. The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: A. right side cerebrum. B. left side cerebrum. C. left parietal lobe. D. right temporal lobe.

113. Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

114. Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. hypothalamus

115. All necessary life functions are coordinated in what part of the brain? A. cerebrum B. gray matter C. cerebellum D. brain stem

116. Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: A. cerebellum. B. limbic system. C. pons and medulla. D. reticular activating system.

117. The connecting nerve, a nerve of the peripheral nervous system, functions by: A. connecting the sensory and motor nerves and bypassing the brain. B. connecting motor nerves directly to the walls of the blood vessels. C. connecting sensory nerves directly to the posterior cerebral cortex. D. connecting the spinal cord directly to the target muscle or organ.

118. What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? A. motor B. cranial C. vertebral D. sensory

119. Which of the following skin layers contains sweat and oil glands, hair follicles, blood vessels, and nerve endings? A. dermis B. epidermis C. sebaceous D. subcutaneous

120. What layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? A. epidermis B. subcutaneous C. dermal D. sebaceous

121. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. sensory reception B. temperature regulation C. metabolic coordination D. pressure and pain perception

122. Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? A. kidney B. pancreas C. stomach D. gallbladder

123. The __________ fills the entire anteroposterior depth of the right upper quadrant (RUQ) of the abdomen. A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. stomach

124. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen? A. liver B. stomach C. cecum D. spleen

125. Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? A. spleen B. kidneys C. gallbladder D. abdominal aorta

126. The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they: A. are protected by the anterior rib cage. B. are located behind the abdominal cavity. C. sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach. D. lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.

127. The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: A. bile. B. insulin. C. pancreatic juice. D. glucose.

128. Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: A. kidneys. B. pancreas. C. stomach. D. gallbladder.

129. The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the: A. pancreas. B. gallbladder. C. small intestine. D. large intestine.

130. Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities? A. skeletal B. nervous C. endocrine D. reproductive

131. Abnormalities in metabolism are MOST likely caused by dysfunction of the: A. pancreas. B. thyroid gland. C. adrenal gland. D. parathyroid gland.

132. Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? A. thyroid B. pituitary C. adrenal D. parathyroid

133. Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct? A. The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control its balance of water and salt. B. Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen. C. Since the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of your blood volume passes through them each minute. D. A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries.

134. Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the: A. prostate. B. ureters. C. urethra. D. renal duct.

135. What is the function of the fallopian tubes? A. connect both ovaries together B. supply blood to the uterine lining C. produce progesterone and estrogen D. transport a mature egg to the uterus

136. Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is generated when: A. the cells function without oxygen. B. circulating blood glucose levels fall. C. the cells function with adequate oxygen. D. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high.

137. The waste products of aerobic metabolism include: A. ATP and glucose. B. glucose and lactic acid. C. uric acid and nitrogen. D. carbon dioxide and water.

138. Which of the following statements regarding anaerobic metabolism is correct? A. Anaerobic metabolism can be supported in most of the body's cells for up to 10 minutes. B. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid and occurs when cellular oxygen is limited. C. The body functions optimally and produces maximum ATP during anaerobic metabolism. D. Without anaerobic metabolism, perfusion to the body would suffer and cellular death would occur.

139. Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular: A. medication. B. assessment. C. disease. D. protocol.

140. The air you breathe is _______ oxygen, and the air you exhale is _______ oxygen. A. 16%, 25% B. 21%, 16% C. 25%, 32% D. 21%, 35%