AAMC FL 1 Bio

25 July 2022
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question
Based on the data presented in the passage, which statement best describes the HSP110ΔE9 allele? A.Cancer-promoting and dominant to HSP110WT B.Cancer-promoting and recessive to HSP110WT C.Cancer-suppressing and dominant to HSP110WT D.Cancer-suppressing and recessive to HSP110WT
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is C. According to Figure 1, as compared to HSP110WT, HSP110ΔE9 slows tumor growth, and thus, it is cancer-suppressing. According to the data in Table 2, HSP110ΔE9 counteracts the ability of HSP110WT to prevent protein aggregation and prevent apoptosis; thus, the HSP110ΔE9 allele is dominant to the HSP110WT allele. This is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question as it required interpretation of data in Figure 1 and Table 2. Cancer causes rapid cell division, usually with some broken DNA repair machinery. This causes tons of mutations within the genome. This is likely how HSP110 gets mutated in the first place. There is probably a more complicated mechanism behind this, but we don't get that information from the passage. Normal HSP110 in a healthy cell helps protein folding. This helps the cell grow and divide, among other things. Cancer cells want to grow and divide, so they like to have normal HSP110. Unfortunately for them, they have a mutated HSP110 that makes it harder for proteins to properly fold. This makes it harder for cancer cells to grow and divide, even killing some of the cancerous cells, which leads to a smaller tumor volume in mutated HSP110. In this sense, HSP110 is a safeguard against cancer. It helps cells function normally. When HSP110 gets mutated (like in cancer), then it won't function properly and sometimes lead to cell death, or at least stunting growth. Dominant because Xx and XX have basically the same effect
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Based on the passage, in MSI CRC primary tumor cells, the size of the deletion in the HSP110 T17 microsatellite is inversely correlated with: A.the amount of HSP110ΔE9 protein expressed. B.the number of mature HSP110WT transcripts synthesized. C.the frequency of the omission of HSP110 Exon 9 during splicing. D.the extent of premature translation termination in Exon 10.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B. According to Table 1, as the size of the deletion increases, the amount of HSP110ΔE9 and HSP110WT transcripts synthesized increase and decrease, respectively. This is an inverse relationship. This is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question as it required interpretation of data in Table 1.
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A man with a CRC mutation that results in the synthesis of HSP110ΔE9 and a woman that does not carry this mutation in any of her tissues have a child. What is the percent chance that the child will inherit the CRC mutation? A.0% B.25% C.50% D.100%
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." The answer to this question is A. According to the passage, HSP110ΔE9 transcripts are not present in noncancerous tissue of people with MSI CRC. This means that the deletion mutation in the HSP110 T17 microsatellite is a somatic, not germ line, mutation. Therefore, the mutation will not be inherited, and the percent chance that the child of a person with this mutation will inherit it is 0%. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it asks you to predict the heritability of the mutation described in the passage.
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Which nucleotide pairing(s) would be recognized by the MMR system during DNA replication? dTMP and dCMP dGMP and dAMP dAMP and dTMP A.I only B.III only C.I and II only D.I, II, and III
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is C. The MMR system recognizes and repairs nucleotide mismatches during DNA replication. The nucleotide pairs dTMP and dCMP (I) and dGMP and dAMP (II) are mismatches. dAMP and dTMP (III) is a correct pairing. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it requires assumed knowledge of nucleotide pairing during DNA replication
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The information in the passage best supports the conclusion that Intron 8 of HSP110 most likely contains which of the following? A.Stop codon B.Splice acceptor site C.HSP110 gene promoter D.Partial coding sequence of HSP110
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B. Deletions in the T17 microsatellite located in Intron 8 of HSP110 cause Exon 9 to be omitted from the final mRNA sequence during pre-mRNA processing. This would occur during alternative splicing, which strongly suggests that the microsatellite contains sequences that influence splicing. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you need to evaluate which genetic feature correctly relates to the information presented on Intron 8 in the passage.
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introns
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do not code for proteins
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Exons
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expressed sequence of DNA; codes for a protein
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splice acceptor site
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Located at the 3' end of the intron, terminates the intron with an AG sequence.
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According to the information in the passage, HSP110 is most likely which type of protein? A.Adhesion B.Chaperone C.Clathrin D.Enzyme
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is B because the passage states that HSP110 is a heat shock protein, which facilitates proper protein folding and inhibits the formation of nonfunctional protein aggregates. Proteins that perform this function are chaperone proteins. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles as it relates to assumed knowledge regarding the function of chaperone proteins.
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adhesion proteins
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Adhesion proteins are membrane proteins that form junctions between adjacent cells.
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Clathrin
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protein that coats the inward-facing surface of the plasma membrane and assists in the formation of specialized structures, like coated pits, for phagocytosis
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chaperone proteins
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assist in folding other proteins
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Which amino acid, in addition to tryptophan, is most likely to be transported by AT1? A.Phenylalanine B.Lysine C.Arginine D.Glutamate
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer is A because phenylalanine is a neutral amino acid just like tryptophan and shares an aromatic structure. This means it is most likely to be recognized by the same transport machinery. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you are asked to draw a comparison using knowledge of amino acid structure.
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Based on the information in the passage, a mature AT1 mRNA is most likely to contain a sequence coding for which genetic factor(s)? A.Signal sequence B.Introns C.Promoter D.Nuclear localization signal
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer to this question is A. The passage indicates that AT1 is a transmembrane protein. Transmembrane proteins enter the endomembrane system by docking at the rough ER. This is facilitated by using a signal sequence. Mature mRNAs are not likely to contain introns (B) or promoter sequences (C). A nuclear localization signal permits proteins to enter the nucleus. This is not likely for a transmembrane protein (D). This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to predict which genetic factor is coded for by a sequence within AT1 mRNA based on the information provided in the passage.
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signal sequence
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The sequence within a protein that directs the protein to a particular organelle.
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Promoter
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specific region of a gene where RNA polymerase can bind and begin transcription
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nuclear localization signal
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The signal sequence for the nucleus that enables proteins to move through pores in the nuclear envelope.
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Which effect did a protein-free diet have on DSS-treated +/y and -/y mice, respectively? A.Both the +/y and the -/y mice gained weight. B.The +/y mice lost weight, and the -/y mice gained weight. C.The +/y mice gained weight, and the -/y mice lost weight. D.Both +/y and the -/y mice lost weight.
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." This answer to this question is D because the data in Table 1 indicate that both +/y and the -/y mice on a protein-free diet lost weight. This is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question as it requires interpretation of data in Table 1.
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Pellagra also results from a deficiency of nicotinamide, which is synthesized from tryptophan. Nicotinamide nucleotides are neither oxidized nor reduced during which step of cellular respiration? A.Glycolysis B.Chemiosmosis C.Citric acid cycle D.Electron transport chain
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer is B because NAD+ is the oxidized form, and NADH is the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. NAD+ is neither reduced to form NADH, nor is NADH oxidized to form NAD+ specifically during chemiosmosis. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must use knowledge of chemiosmosis to determine the role of NAD+ and NADH in that process.
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Chemiosmosis
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A process for synthesizing ATP using the energy of an electrochemical gradient and the ATP synthase enzyme. Does not oxidize or reduce NAD
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electron transport chain
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A sequence of electron carrier molecules (membrane proteins) that shuttle electrons during the redox reactions that release energy used to make ATP.
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If a man with a mutant copy of Ace2 has a child with a woman that is heterozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele, what is the probability that the child will be a female and homozygous for the mutant Ace2 allele? A.0 B.0.25 C.0.75 D. 1
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." The answer to this question is B because a cross between an affected male and an unaffected female carrier will produce an affected female approximately 25% of the time. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to predict the probability that an offspring is female and has a particular genotype.
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During the initiation of muscle contraction, mysosin binds actin after troponin binds to which ion? A.H+ B.K+ C.Na+ D.Ca2+
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer to this question is D because during the initiation of muscle contraction, free Ca2+ in the cytosol binds to troponin, which pulls tropomyosin away from actin's myosin-binding site. This allows myosin to bind to actin. The other ions are not involved in actin-myosin binding. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it relates to the molecular mechanism of muscle contraction.
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What is the total number of fused rings present in a steroid? A.1 B.2 C.4 D.6
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is an Organic Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer to this question is C because a steroid is defined by its fused 4-ring structure. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you are asked to recognize the relationship between classification and structure for a type of organic molecule.
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Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (the epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A.An increase in the neuron-firing threshold B.An increase in extracellular Na+ concentration C.A decrease in axon-membrane permeability to negative ions D.A decrease in the length of the depolarization stage
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and functions of the nervous and endocrine systems and ways in which these systems coordinate the organ systems." A drug that would best treat epilepsy, as described, should reduce the activity of the neurons in the epileptic focus, which are excitatory neurons based on their effect throughout the cortex. The answer to this question is A because increasing the threshold required to generate an action potential would decrease the chance that individual neurons would fire, thus reducing the overall amount of excitation that spreads from the epileptic focus throughout the cortex. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to reason between different options for the treatment of a biological condition.
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When concentrated urine is being produced, in which of the following regions of the kidney will the glomerular filtrate reach its highest concentration? A.Proximal convoluted tubule B.Distal convoluted tubule C.Cortical portion of the collecting duct D.Medullary portion of the collecting duct
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer is D because glomerular filtrate is most concentrated in the medullary portion of the collecting duct, compared to the other kidney structures listed. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it requires knowing the process of urine production in the kidney.
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What aspect of Experiment 1 does NOT address whether membrane composition has an effect on Na+K+ ATPase activity? The activity of the Na+K+ ATPase: A.showed less temperature dependence in the 14:1 liposome than the 14:0 liposome. B.was highest in the 14:0 liposomes at all temperatures. C.increased with temperature in both the 14:1 liposome and the 14:0 liposome. D.was greater at all temperatures when cholesterol was present.
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer is C because the researchers were not trying to show that protein activity increases with temperature, which is an expected result of all kinetic studies assuming the protein does not thermally denature. They raised the temperature to see how fluidity plays a role in activity. This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to understand the purpose of an experiment based on the experimental parameters and execution.
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Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ ATPase? A.Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B.Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C.Measuring the rate of ADP production D.Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is B because free energy is a thermodynamic quantity and is NOT a kinetic property. Activity is a kinetic property. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you are asked to reason about the appropriateness of a particular research design.
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What is the function of the Na+K+ ATPase during a neuronal action potential? A.Stimulation of the action potential B.Depolarization of the membrane C.Hyperpolarization of the membrane D.Restoration of the resting potential
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and functions of the nervous and endocrine systems and ways in which these systems coordinate the organ systems." The answer is D because the Na+K+ ATPase functions to restore the resting membrane potential by moving the ions against their concentration gradients. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must use your knowledge of the role of pumps in an action potential to solve the problem.
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In which direction does the Na+K+ ATPase transport ions across the cell membrane upon ATP hydrolysis? A.Na+ is transported out of the cell; K+ is transported into the cell. B.Na+ is transported into the cell; K+ is transported out of the cell. C.Both Na+ and K+ are transported into the cell. D.Both Na+ and K+ are transported out of the cell.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer is A because the Na+K+ ATPase transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell with each ATP hydrolyzed. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must apply knowledge about the resulting ion movement from Na+K+ ATPase activity.
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Upon activation, p65 and cRel control the level of IL-6 mRNA by: A.binding RNA. B.binding DNA. C.replicating RNA. D.replicating DNA.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer is B because both p65 and cRel function as transcription factors, which bind DNA and subsequently recruit RNA polymerase. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must understand the role of transcription factors in genetics.
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transcription factors
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A regulatory protein that binds to DNA and affects transcription of specific genes, recruiting RNA polymerase
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Considering the structure of STN, what is the most likely mechanism for its entry into the cell? A.Active transport B.Receptor mediated endocytosis C.Diffusion directly through the membrane D.Passage through an ion channel
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer is C because the structure of STN shows sufficient planarity and hydrophobicity to pass through the membrane by simple diffusion. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must predict an outcome based on scientific knowledge and observational reasoning.
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Assuming no mutations to the signaling pathway described in the passage, what event directly activates CARD11? A.Proteolytic cleaveage B.GTP binding C.Membrane association D.Phosphorylation
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer is D because the protein that activates CARD11 is PKC, which is a kinase. This implies that phosphorylation is the activating event. This is Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you need to apply knowledge of kinase function to the signaling system in the passage.
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According to the passage, what is most likely correct about the genes that are expressed as a result of the constant activation of the NF-κB pathway? A.They cause disruption of the mitochondria. B.They contain a p65/cRel binding site in their promoter region. C.They have accumulated mutations that alter function. D.They bind to STN in the cytoplasm.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer is B because the constantly active signaling pathway will result in the overexpression of genes that are under control of the p65/cRel transcription factors. Mitochondrial disruption would occur if the apoptotic machinery was stimulated, but these genes are antiapoptotic. Mutations occur to the NF-kB pathway, which cause the constant activation. The gene products of this signaling pathway do not necessarily have mutations, as their overexpression is sufficient for pathogenesis. Binding to STN is not discussed. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must understand the causes of a biological event and reason about the other factors involved.
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Which mechanism best describes how P-gp facilitates drug resistance? A.P-gp binds to antitumor drugs in the presence of ATP and degrades the drugs. B.P-gp serves as a pump and uses active transport to move antitumor drugs outside the cell. C.P-gp prevents the entry of anti-tumor drugs into the cell. D.P-gp causes increased membrane permeability, which causes antitumor drugs to exit the cell.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer is B because P-gp is an ABC transporter protein, which uses ATP to actively transport antitumor drugs out of the cell. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must apply knowledge of a transport protein to a situation of drug resistance.
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ABC transporters
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carrier proteins that use energy from ATP to transport solutes
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The formation of which reaction products is increased in MBCD-treated MDR cells after exposure to 100 µM cholesterol? A.AMP + ADP B.ADP + Pi C.ATP + Pi D.ADP + ATP
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer is B because at 100 µM cholesterol in the depleted MDR cells, ATPase activity, which is ATP hydrolysis activity, is completely restored. ATP hydrolysis produces ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must reason about the purpose of a reaction and its resulting products.
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What is the most likely location of P-gp within the plasma membrane? A.Associated with lipids on the cytoplasmic side only B.Associated with lipids on the extracellular side only C.Peripheral to the plasma membrane D.Within a lipid raft
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer D because the passage states the P-gp is found in cholesterol rich domains, which would indicate lipid rafts. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must apply knowledge about membrane structures to solve the problem.
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lipid rafts
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cholesterol filled microdomains for signal transduction and endocytosis
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MBCD is composed of which type of molecule? A.Amino acids B.Fatty acids C.Nucleotides D.Carbohydrates
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Carbohydrates Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer is D because MBCD is a cyclic oligosaccharide, which means it is composed of carbohydrates. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you recall the properties of carbohydrates to solve the problem.
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Colchicine is a drug that prevents the formation of microtubules. Which of the following mitotic processes would NOT occur after exposure to this drug? A.Formation of new cell plate B.Replication of DNA during interphase C.Breakdown of the nucleolus during prophase D.Movement of the chromosomes toward opposite poles of the cell during anaphase
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Processes of cell division, differentiation, and specialization." The answer to this question is D because microtubules function in chromosomal movements in cell division. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to predict which biological process would be most affected by the use of the drug described.
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The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by: A.passive flow due to a pressure difference. B.passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system. C.active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient. D.active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer to this question is A because the initial filtration in the glomerulus occurs as blood pressure forces the fluid from the glomerulus into the lumen of Bowman's capsule. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it requires knowing the structure and function of the mammalian excretory system.
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The half-life of urea is the time it takes for its concentration to fall by one-half. The graph illustrates the clearance of urea from an initial plasma concentration of 200 ng/mL. If it takes five half-lives for urea to be considered eliminated from the body, how long did it take to eliminate the urea? A.1.5 h B.2.5 h C.3.5 h D.4.0 h
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." From the graph, it takes 0.5 h for the plasma concentration of urea to fall by one-half (100 ng/mL to 50 ng/mL). If it took five half-lives for urea to be considered eliminated from the body, 0.5 h should be multiplied by five. Therefore, the answer to this question is B; it took 2.5 h to eliminate urea from the body. This is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question as it requires the interpretation of data presented in the graph.
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Enzymes alter the rate of chemical reactions by all of the following methods EXCEPT: A.co-localizing substrates. B.altering local pH. C.altering substrate shape. D.altering substrate primary structure.
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is D. The primary structure of a protein substrate is the amino acid sequence of the protein. Enzymes cannot alter primary structures of protein, but can colocalize substrates, alter local pH, and alter substrate shape. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it requires knowledge of the different ways that enzymes can alter chemical reactions.
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Which of the following statements gives the most fundamental reason why ornithine is unlikely to be found in proteins synthesized in vivo? A.There is no codon for it in the standard genetic code. B.It cannot form a peptide bond. C.It is not available in the diet. D.It has a net positive charge in aqueous solution.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is A, because without a corresponding codon in the genetic code, an amino acid cannot take part in the process of protein translation from an mRNA transcript. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to work with the scientific model of protein translation to answer this question.
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Which of the following terms best describes the role of ornithine decarboxylase in the reaction shown in Equation 1? A.Catalyst B.Cofactor C.Substrate D.Activator
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Activator Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer is A because ornithine decarboxylase is an enzyme and enzymes are catalysts. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must use knowledge about the role of enzymes in chemical reactions to solve the problem.
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The ornithine decarboxylase reaction has been studied extensively by biomedical researchers. The most likely reason for the interest of these researchers is that the reaction is: A.a good source of ornithine. B.an early event in cell division. C.unique to mammals. D.one in which a chiral reactant is converted to an achiral product.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B, because the passage states that in mammals and other organisms ornithine decarboxylase participates in early events in cell division. This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires you to hypothesize about a testable research question.
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The statement that the ornithine decarboxylase assay is highly specific means that it: A.requires radioactive ornithine of high specific activity. B.generates diaminobutane of high specific activity. C.an distinguish ornithine decarboxylase activity from the many other enzymatic reactions in a cell. D.can measure the small amount of ornithine present in a cell.
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is C because enzymes such as ornithine decarboxylase are highly specific both in the reactions that they catalyze and in their choice of substrates and therefore catalyze only a single chemical reaction or occasionally a set of closely related reactions. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question as it relates to assumed knowledge regarding enzyme specificity.
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In the example of the alcoholic in the passage, the presence of alcohol caused death because the alcohol: A.denatured the cP-450. B.inhibited the cP-450. C.decreased the concentration of cP-450. D.increased the concentration of cP-450.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is B because the passage states that alcohol acts as a competitive inhibitor of cP-450, thus preventing it from metabolizing barbiturate. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to evaluate the information in the passage and reach a conclusion
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Ethanol may be metabolized to acetic acid, then condensed with a coenzyme to form acetyl coenzyme A. Acetyl coenzyme A may then participate in: A.the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. B.glycolysis. C.electron transport. D.oxidative phosphorylation.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is A, because acetyl coenzyme A is the main input of the citric acid cycle. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it relates to assumed knowledge regarding the oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A to carbon dioxide through the citric acid cycle.
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The lung cells of heavy smokers would be expected to have greatly increased concentrations of cP-450 and: A.DNA sequences that code for cP-450. B.mRNA sequences that code for cP-450. C.rRNA that process cP-450. D.tRNA that are specific for cysteine.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B, because protein levels relate most directly to mRNA levels. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to work with the scientific models of gene expression.
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No drowsiness was initially felt by the alcoholic because the previous abuse of alcohol had: A.denatured the cP-450. B.inhibited the cP-450. C.reduced the cP-450. D.induced the cP-450.
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is D, because the passage states that cP-450 is inducible and thus previous abuse of alcohol, a cellular toxin, results in an increased concentration of cP-450. This leads to rapid barbiturate metabolism by cP-450 and the absence of initial drowsiness. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to propose an explanation for the absence of the initial drowsiness.
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Induction of a protein
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increasing the amount of the protein
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The pericytes used in these experiments were probably in which phase of the cell cycle? A.Telophase B.Metaphase C.Anaphase D.Interphase
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Processes of cell division, differentiation, and specialization." The question asks the examinee to identify the phase of the cell cycle in which the growth of the pericytes was arrested. According to the passage, the pericytes were treated so that they would not divide but would, from a metabolic perspective, continue to function normally. Three of the listed options (A, B, and C) are phases of mitosis and thus, occur during cell division. Interphase (D) is the phase of the cell cycle between cell divisions and is the phase in which the cell obtains nutrients, grows, reads its DNA, and conducts other "normal" cell functions. Thus, D is the best answer. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to make a prediction about a biological process based on the information provided in the passage.
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A student hypothesized that EC growth might be affected by the DNA from circulating erythrocytes. Is this student's hypothesis reasonable? A.No; the DNA in circulating erythrocytes is needed to help transport O2 through the capillaries. B.No; circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA. C.Yes; DNA is responsible for cell division in most cells. D.Yes; circulating erythrocytes carry DNA nutrients through the capillaries.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer to this question is B because mammalian erythrocytes (red blood cells) lose their nuclei during maturation. Therefore, circulating erythrocytes do not contain DNA that could affect endothelial cell growth. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to evaluate a scientific hypothesis.
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Pericytes were growth-arrested in Experiment 1 so that the: A.pericyte growth would not interfere with the measurement of EC growth. B.pericytes would not inhibit EC growth. C.metabolic wastes of the pericytes would not interfere with the measurement of EC growth. D.ECs would not cause the pericytes to grow.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The question asks the examinee to identify the reason for using pericytes that were growth-arrested in Experiment 1. The results of the experiment were expressed in terms of the number of endothelial cells. Had the pericytes been allowed to divide, the observed increase in the number of cells in the culture would have been due to increases in the number of pericytes and in the number of endothelial cells. By inhibiting the division of pericytes, the observed change in cell number is attributable solely to the growth of endothelial cells. The reason for using growth-arrested cells is therefore to simplify the measurement of the number of endothelial cells in the culture. Thus, A is the best answer. This is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question as it asks why the researchers performed a specific step in the experiment.
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Based on Figure 1 and the passage, which of the following cells are most important in the exchange of O2 between the blood and the surrounding tissues? A.Pericytes B.Endothelial cells C.Smooth-muscle cells D.Fibroblasts
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The question asks the examinee to use the information in the passage and in Figure 1 to determine what cells are most important in the exchange of oxygen between the blood and the surrounding tissues. An examination of Figure 1 shows that endothelial cells separate the blood from the surrounding tissue. Thus, B is the best answer. This is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because it requires you to examine the structure shown in Figure 1.
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The process of culturing bacteria often involves inoculation of cells on a noncellular, agar-based medium. Such a methodology would NOT result in growth of animal viruses because animal viruses: A.are obligate parasites. B.lack DNA. C.assimilate carbon. D.require essential vitamin supplements for growth.
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "The structure, growth, physiology, and genetics of prokaryotes and viruses." The answer is A because viruses can only reproduce in a host cell, and are therefore obligate intracellular parasites. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires consideration of which characteristic would restrict growth of animal viruses using a technique that can be used to grow bacteria.
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In general, telomeres are NOT important to bacterial cells because most bacterial chromosomes: A.do not replicate. B.are circular. C.replicate quickly and efficiently. D.are composed of single-stranded DNA.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein". The answer to this question is B because in most prokaryotes, DNA is circular and therefore does not have the repetitive, non-coding nucleotide sequences called telomeres that occur in eukaryotic DNA. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it asks about the structure features of bacterial chromosomes.
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A.A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the phosphate of the adenine B.A bond between an oxygen in the thymine base and a nitrogen in the adenine base C.A bond between the phosphate of the thymine and the sugar of the adenine D.A bond between the phosphate of the adenine and the sugar of the thymine
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is D because nucleotides are linked to one another by phosphodiester bonds between the sugar base of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the adjacent nucleotide in a way that the 5' end bears a phosphate, and the 3' end a hydroxyl group. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it asks about the structure of nucleic acids.
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During an action potential, the movement of sodium ions into a neuron causes the neuronal membrane to do which of the following? A.Inactivate B.Hyperpolarize C.Repolarize D.Depolarize
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and functions of the nervous and endocrine systems and ways in which these systems coordinate the organ systems." The answer to this question is D because the movement of sodium ions into a neuron during an action potential results in opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels, causing further depolarization. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are presented with information about the movement of sodium ions from the extracellular environment into a neuron during an action potential, and you must determine how this movement affects the neuronal membrane.
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The aldosterone deficiency associated with Addison's disease will cause a decrease in the serum levels of all of the following ions EXCEPT: A.Na+ ions. B.Cl- ions. C.K+ ions. D.HCO3- ions.
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer to this question is C because the passage states that aldosterone causes excretion of K+. Therefore, aldosterone deficiency will not lead to a decrease in serum levels of K+ ions. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you need to determine how an alternation in hormone levels caused by a disease will affect homeostatic regulation within the kidney.
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Normally, a hypothalamic factor stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In a patient with Addison's disease, the secretion of the hypothalamic factor will: A.be lower than normal. B.be higher than normal. C.be unchanged. D.increase before disease onset and decrease thereafter.
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This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and functions of the nervous and endocrine systems and ways in which these systems coordinate the organ systems." The answer to this question is B because ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids. According to the passage, Addison's disease occurs when cells of the adrenal cortex are destroyed, rendering them unable to secrete glucocorticoids. As part of a hormone cascade pathway, ACTH secretion is expected to be higher than normal in a patient with Addison's disease to attempt to stimulate the adrenal cortex. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to determine how a disease affects a hormone cascade pathway.
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If a patient with Addison's disease is given too high a replacement dose of glucocorticoids, the effect over time will be an increase in: A.muscle mass. B.muscle weakness. C.red blood cell count. D.heart rate.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ system." The answer to this question is B because glucocorticoids act on skeletal muscle causing the breakdown of muscle proteins. Therefore, if a patient is given too high a replacement dose of glucocorticoids, this will result in muscle weakness. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to combine assumed knowledge with the predicted outcome of a particular medical treatment to an affected individual.
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The most rapid rate of gluconeogenesis will most likely occur in the body when: A.blood glucose levels are high. B.cortisol release is inhibited. C.the body's stores of carbohydrates are low. D.the body's stores of proteins are low.
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is C, because gluconeogenesis is the pathway for the synthesis of glucose from other metabolic compounds and thus it is activated when the body's stores of carbohydrates are low. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it relates to assumed knowledge regarding gluconeogenesis.
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Glucose transporter proteins in the liver do not require the presence of insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose. However, insulin does stimulate the first step in the glycolytic pathway within the liver. Therefore, in liver cells, insulin most likely: A.hinders glucose uptake by increasing the cellular concentration of glucose. B.aids glucose uptake by decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. C.hinders glucose uptake by using the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins. D.aids glucose uptake by providing the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins.
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is B because the stem states that insulin stimulates the first step in the glycolytic pathway in the liver, thus decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. This results in increased uptake of glucose to maintain the cellular concentration of glucose. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to make a prediction about a biological process based on the information provided in the stem.
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Exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose in working skeletal muscles. Given this, regular exercise would most likely reduce blood glucose levels in patients with which type(s) of diabetes? A.Type 1 only B.Type 2 only C.Both Type 1 and Type 2 D.Neither Type 1 nor Type 2
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Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ systems." The answer to this question is C because the stem states that exercise promotes the insulin-independent uptake of glucose and thus it will reduce blood glucose levels both in patients with impaired production of insulin (type 1 diabetes), and in patients who do not respond to insulin (type 2 diabetes). This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to make a prediction about the role of exercise on reduction of blood glucose levels.
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During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations? A.Nucleus B.Ribosomes C.Endomembrane system D.Cytoplasm
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This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer to this question is C because secreted proteins such as insulin are cleaved into mature form within endomembrane system. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it relates to assumed knowledge regarding the role of endomembrane system in processing of secreted proteins.
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endomembrane system
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the organelles of the endomembrane system include: the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vesicles, endosomes, among others.
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Despite the effects of diabetes, the brains of diabetic patients still receive adequate nourishment. This is most likely because the brain uses: A.less glucose than do other body tissues. B.insulin-independent transporters for the uptake of glucose. C.fatty acids for energy instead of glucose. D.insulin-dependent transporters for the uptake of glucose.
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This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and functions of the nervous and endocrine systems and ways in which these systems coordinate the organ systems." The answer to this question is B because glucose is the main fuel for brain cells, and since the brains of diabetic patients receive an adequate amount of glucose, the brain must use an insulin-independent mechanism for glucose uptake This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to evaluate proposed options to correctly answer this question.
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Based on the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of diabetes mellitus? A.Loss of appetite B.Sweet-tasting urine C.Unexplained weight loss D.Feelings of fatigue
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is A, because based on the passage, the symptoms of diabetes mellitus are frequent urination and catabolism of fatty acid as well as proteins as alternative energy sources. In diabetic patients, high blood glucose results in excretion of excess sugar into the urine, hence sweet-tasting urine. Similarly, the catabolism of fatty acids and proteins results in weight loss and feelings of fatigue respectively. This leaves loss of appetite as the only correct answer. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you are asked to evaluate the information from the passage and identify possible symptoms of diabetes mellitus.
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A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A.5.4 fg only B.5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C.5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D.5.45 fg only
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Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "The structure, growth, physiology, and genetics of prokaryotes and viruses." The answer to this question is B because DNA replication is semi-conservative. Therefore, after the first round of cell division the genome mass in each bacterium will be 5.45 fg (one DNA strand will contain 15N and the other strand 14N). Following the second round of cell division, half of the bacteria will have a genome mass of 5.4 fg (14N exclusively) and the other half a mass genome of 5.45 fg (14N in one DNA strand and 15N in the other). This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you need to work with the scientific model of DNA replication.
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Assume that K and M are two unlinked genes that affect hearing. The dominant K allele is necessary for hearing, and the dominant M allele causes deafness regardless of the other genes present. Given this, what fraction of the offspring of parents with the genotypes KkMm and Kkmm will most likely be deaf? A.1/4 B.3/8 C.1/2 D.5/8
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Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." The answer to this question is D, because among the offspring of KkMm and Kkmm parents, the ones who lack a dominant K allele (necessary for hearing), or carry a dominant M allele (causes deafness) are deaf. Based on the Punnett square analysis, 10 out of 16 or 5/8 of all offspring are likely to be deaf. This is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires you to calculate the number of offspring with a particular phenotype from a parental cross.
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An RNA molecule has 1500 bases. What is the maximum number of amino acids it can encode? A.500 B.1000 C.1500 D.4500
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Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is A because each amino acid is encoded by three bases, so 1500/3 is 500, which is the maximum of amino acids the RNA molecule can encode. This is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles because it addresses basic concepts of gene to protein knowledge.