Abnormal Pysch Chapter 6

20 May 2023
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6.1.1. According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), in any given year, what percent of adults suffer from at least one type of anxiety disorder?
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b. 18 percent
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6.1.2. The close relationship between symptoms of anxiety and the symptoms for depression suggests that
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b. these disorders may share common etiological features.
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6.1.3. In which of these situations would an agoraphobic be most likely to exhibit avoidance or fear?
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d. sitting in the middle of a row in a crowded theater
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6.1.4. According to the case study of the writer presented in your textbook, why would individuals with agoraphobia feel terrified of crowds?
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d. They fear not being able to escape.
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6.1.5. Anxiety is a reaction to
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c. anticipated future problems.
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6.1.6. Which of the following statements about anxiety is true?
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c. Anxiety can be adaptive at low levels.
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6.1.7. In what way is fear different from anxiety?
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b. Fear occurs appropriately in the face of real danger.
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6.1.8. Which of the following is typically associated with an anxious mood?
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c. pessimistic thoughts and feelings
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6.1.9. Barlow suggests that anxious apprehension involves which of the following?
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d. a sense of uncontrollability
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6.1.10. Worry is a relatively uncontrollable sequence of negative emotional thoughts and images concerned with
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d. possible future threats or dangers.
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6.1.11. Worriers are preoccupied with _______ rather than unpleasant visual images.
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d. "self talk"
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6.1.12. People who worry excessively usually report that their worries are not
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a. realistic.
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6.1.13. According to the DSM, which of the following questions would be most useful in distinguishing a panic attack from anxiety?
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c. Do your symptoms reach peak intensity within 10 minutes?
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6.1.14. To say that panic is like a "false alarm" means that panic is
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a. a normal fear response triggered at an inappropriate time.
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6.1.15. Compared to anxiety, a panic attack tends to be
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a. sudden.
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6.1.16. Which of the following is one of the DSM-5 criteria used to identify panic attack?
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b. reaches peak intensity within 10 minutes
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6.1.17. Which of the following statements about panic attacks is true?
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c. Panic attacks are sometimes cued, sometimes unexpected.
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6.1.18. Under what circumstances is a panic attack said to be cued?
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a. when it occurs only in predictable situations
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6.1.19. Which of the following situations is most likely to be associated with the development of a panic attack?
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c. Al misinterpreted a sudden increase in his heart rate as evidence of a heart attack.
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6.1.20. Which of the following is appropriately matched?
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a. acrophobia: fear of heights
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6.1.21. Fear is not considered phobic unless
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a. the person avoids contact with the source of the fear or experiences intense anxiety in the presence of the feared stimulus.
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6.1.22. Repetitive, unwanted, intrusive cognitive events in the form of thoughts, images, or impulses that intrude suddenly into consciousness are called
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c. obsessions.
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6.1.23. What are compulsions?
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d. irrational, repetitive behaviors
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6.1.24. How do patients typically view their compulsions?
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c. as senseless and irrational
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6.1.25. What motivated Ed, in the case presented in your text, to rush to the mailbox and tear open an envelope containing a form that he had just completed?
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c. He thought his writing of a particular letter would be associated with the strangulation of his wife.
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6.1.26. How do clinical obsessions differ from normal obsessions?
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a. They differ in degree rather than kind.
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6.1.27. After studying her patients' compulsions, what is a clinician most likely to conclude about their effects?
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c. The compulsions reduce anxiety, but do not increase pleasure.
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6.1.28. Compulsives can sometimes resist their compulsions, but they usually return to their compulsive behavior because they
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a. will become more distressed if they do not engage in the compulsive behavior.
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6.1.29. You are starting a research project in which you wish to compare the everyday compulsive behavior of individuals not diagnosed with a mental disorder with the most common forms of compulsive behavior found in those diagnosed with OCD. What are the two most common forms of compulsion found in those so diagnosed?
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c. checking and cleaning
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6.1.30. Amy loves collecting coffee mugs and has been collecting them for years. At the drop of a hat, she will launch into a discussion of her collection, the price of mugs, and her plans for purchasing more mugs. Her friends say she must have obsessive-compulsive disorder. You disagree. What do you say to her friends when they ask why you disagree?
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a. Unlike an obsessive-compulsive, Amy derives pleasure from this activity.
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6.1.31. During the first half of the twentieth century, psychiatrists tended to adopt a generalized position with regard to anxiety disorder. In other words they
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a. lumped together the various anxiety disorders.
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6.1.32. The impact of the current shift in classification in the DSM-5 is increased precision. This means that
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d. the essential features and diagnostic boundaries of these conditions have been clarified.
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6.1.33. DSM-5 approach to classifying anxiety disorders is based primarily on
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b. descriptive features of each disorder.
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6.1.34. Which of the following are contained in the current DSM categories of phobias?
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c. agoraphobia, social, and specific
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6.1.35. A differential diagnosis between social and specific phobia is a bit tricky. You need to look for the most important difference between social phobia and specific phobia, which is that social phobia
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b. involves both the element of performance and interpersonal interactions.
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6.1.36. In which situation might a person exhibit a social phobia?
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a. performing at a concert
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6.1.37. Bill worries about a long list of concerns. He finds himself constantly thinking about these topics at work, when he exercises, and as he tries to sleep. He is easily fatigued, can't concentrate, and is often restless. He has been worrying like this for the past year. Bill seems to meet the criteria for the diagnosis of
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c. generalized anxiety disorder.
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6.1.38. Tim has been worried about his grades for more than three months. After hearing about the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder, he becomes convinced that he has the disorder himself. After seeing a mental health professional, what is he told?
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c. He does not meet the criteria for generalized anxiety disorder in terms of length of time and number of worries.
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6.1.39. Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is one of the most controversial anxiety disorders because
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a. the diagnostic reliability of GAD is lower than that of other anxiety disorders.
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6.1.40. What must a person demonstrate in order to be diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
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d. realization that the obsessions or compulsions are excessive or unreasonable
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6.1.41. What is an essential element of the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
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d. The person tries to ignore, suppress, or neutralize the unwanted thoughts or impulses.
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6.1.42. In the theoretical debate around the nature of anxiety disorders, those who suggest that all anxiety disorders should be seen as the same disorder are sometimes referred to as
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b. lumpers.
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6.1.43. In the debate between "lumpers" and "splitters" regarding anxiety disorders, the splitters argue that
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d. there are a number of separate disorders.
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6.1.44. Research on the long-term outcomes for people experiencing anxiety disorders indicates that
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b. long-term outcomes tend to be quite mixed and unpredictable.
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6.1.45. Which of the following is true as to the course of anxiety disorders?
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a. The long-term outcome of individuals with anxiety disorder is mixed and unpredictable.
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6.1.46. Studies of the long-term course of obsessive-compulsive disorder indicate that which of the following is true?
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c. Approximately 50 percent of patients still show symptoms after 30 years.
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6.1.47. According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), which type of anxiety disorder is the most common?
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a. specific phobias
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6.1.48. Prospective studies of the relationship between drinking problems and anxiety disorders suggest that
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c. anxiety disorders can lead to heavy drinking, and heavy drinking can lead to anxiety disorders.
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6.1.49. Among those diagnosed with an anxiety disorder
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b. the relapse rates are higher for women than for men.
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6.1.50. One study found that ___ percent of people who met the criteria for one anxiety disorder also met the criteria for at least one other form of anxiety disorder or mood disorder.
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c. 50
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6.1.51. What is the only anxiety disorder that does not exhibit a significant gender difference?
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d. obsessive-compulsive disorder
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6.1.52. How does the prevalence of anxiety disorders among the elderly compare to the prevalence among other age groups?
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a. The prevalence rate is lower among the elderly.
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6.1.53. In Western societies anxiety is most frequently associated with work performance, whereas in non-Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with
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a. family or religious concerns.
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6.1.54. Cultural anthropologists have recognized many different cultural concepts of distress that, in some cases,
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d. resemble very closely disorders listed in the DSM-5.
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6.1.55. What was the major result of the Cross-National Collaborative Panic Study?
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a. Panic disorder occurs in all countries studied.
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6.1.56. Current theories regarding the evolutionary significance of anxiety and fear suggest that
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c. both emotional responses are adaptive in some circumstances.
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6.1.57. What conclusion was reached by researchers studying the relationship between stressful life events and anxiety/depressive disorders?
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c. Stressful events frequently precede the development of both anxiety and depressive disorders.
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6.1.58. According to John Bowlby's research on agoraphobia in 1973 and in 1980, which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for the onset of this disorder?
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d. Christine, who has had an increase in the number of serious arguments with her parents
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6.1.59. Which of the following best describes the connection between particular forms of adverse environmental events and specific types of mental disorder?
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c. There does not seem to be any direct connection.
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6.1.60. What type of attachment has been reported to be associated with the development of agoraphobia?
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b. insecure
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6.1.61. After Harriet was in a bicycle accident, she became fearful of riding bicycles. Which theory of the development of phobias would explain this fear?
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d. classical conditioning
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6.1.62. While walking along the road, a car drives by and honks right next to you. The car hits your leg, and you are slightly injured. A few weeks later, you hear a car horn and become very nervous. What is the horn honking in this scenario?
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a. conditioned stimulus
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6.1.63. The preparedness model of phobic acquisition holds that phobias develop in response to
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d. objects and situations that are fear-relevant.
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6.1.64. One important element in the development of social phobias may be a biologically-based preparedness to fear
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b. faces that appear angry or rejecting toward us.
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6.1.65. Research has suggested that a factor contributing to the development of some anxiety reactions is that
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b. people apparently learn to avoid certain stimuli if they observe other people showing a strong fear response to those stimuli.
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6.1.66. As a cognitive psychologist, you hypothesis that many factors can contribute to the cause of an anxiety disorder, but the following are especially important:
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b. perceptions, memories and attention.
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6.1.67. Research has consistently found evidence that problems with anxiety show up at high rates in people who believe that
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b. they are not in control of events.
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6.1.68. According to D.M. Clark's research, people with anxiety sensitivity would likely be frightened most by
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b. heart palpitations.
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6.1.69. Several lines of research have clarified the basic cognitive mechanisms involved in generalized anxiety disorder, as well as in panic disorder. Experts now believe that a factor that plays a crucial role in the onset of this process is
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d. attention.
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6.1.70. A patient with panic disorder tends to interpret the rapid beating of his heart as a heart attack; a cognitive psychologist would call this
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b. catastrophic misinterpretation.
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6.1.71. Cognitive psychologists believe that people whose threat schemas contain a high proportion of "what-if" questions
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c. experience a dramatic increase in negative affect.
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6.1.72. According to cognitive models of anxiety, such as Borkovec, Alcaine and Behar's model, why do people continue to worry despite the fact that it is unproductive?
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c. The worry is reinforced by a temporary reduction in uncomfortable physiological sensations.
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6.1.73. A person with social phobia can perform a particular task when alone but not in front of an audience; according to Barlow's model of anxious apprehension, this is due to
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c. the distraction of self-focused attention.
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6.1.74. What is thought suppression?
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c. an active attempt to stop thinking about something
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6.1.75. According to Wegner, what typically happens when people prone to anxiety disorders try to rid their mind of distressing or unwanted thoughts?
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a. The thoughts actually become more associated with emotions.
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6.1.76. The episodic nature of obsessive-compulsive disorder symptoms is thought to be related to
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d. a rebound from attempts to suppress strong emotion.
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6.1.77. What have studies of the genetics of panic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder found concerning the genetic component in a model of the cause of these disorders?
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a. both appear to be either modestly or moderately heritable
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6.1.78. Twin studies of anxiety disorders indicate that generalized anxiety disorder has a heritability of
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a. around 20 to 30 percent.
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6.1.79. The brain pathway that operates as a "short cut" in the detection of danger
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d. allows some threats to be responded to very quickly.
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6.1.80. The two different pathways in the brain involved in the detection of danger differ from one another with respect to
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b. the amount of conscious thinking and reasoning.
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6.1.81. Brain imaging studies of patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) show that OCD
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b. has neurological foundations different from other anxiety disorders.
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6.1.82. Research from the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has suggested a model called the pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection, or PANDAS, which has
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c. not yet been supported or refuted by strong evidence.
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6.1.83. An inhibitory neurotransmitter that functions to reduce levels of anxiety is called
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c. GABA.
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6.1.84. Your textbook presents the case study of Ed, a 38-year-old lawyer diagnosed with OCD. What was the first form of treatment Ed received for this disorder?
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c. antidepressant medication
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6.1.85. Systematic desensitization involves
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c. exposure to the feared item while maintaining relaxation.
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6.1.86. Flooding refers to the
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b. exposure to highly feared objects.
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6.1.87. Alex suffers from agoraphobia, and while in treatment he is asked to repeatedly confront places like crowded shopping malls and theaters that he has been avoiding. The treatment he is receiving is
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c. situational exposure.
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6.1.88. Pamela experiences frequent unexpected panic attacks. A treatment that could help her to reduce her fear of bodily sensations that seem to trigger her panic attacks would be
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b. interoceptive exposure.
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6.1.89. Exposure and response prevention is most effective in the treatment of
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d. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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6.1.90. Which of the following is one of the reasons why it is important to distinguish between statistical significance and clinical importance of treatment outcome studies?
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b. Statistical significance could be based on relatively trivial changes in the patients' adjustment.
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6.1.91. A therapist asks a patient to describe what he believes would happen if his worst-case scenario became reality. The patient says, "If I fail this test, I'll never get into graduate school." What cognitive aspect is the therapist working with?
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c. decatastrophizing
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6.1.92. The technique of breathing retraining provides panic disorder patients with education about the
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b. physiological effects of hyperventilation.
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6.1.93. A psychiatrist prescribes a benzodiazepine for a patient suffering from an anxiety disorder. Which of the following symptoms are most likely to respond to this treatment?
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d. muscle tension and palpitations
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6.1.94. Which category contains the drugs known as benzodiazepines?
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d. minor tranquilizers
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6.1.95. Which of the following are examples of the benzodiazepine class of drugs?
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b. Valium and Xanax
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6.1.96. Which neurotransmitter is affected by benzodiazepine drugs?
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a. GABA
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6.1.97. Benzodiazepines are most effective for treating
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c. generalized anxiety disorder.
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6.1.98. Which of the following is considered a drug of choice for panic disorder because it produces clinical improvement more quickly than antidepressants?
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a. Alprazolam (Xanax)
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6.1.99. Another class of antianxiety medication is known azapirones. Rather than working on GABA neurons, this antianxiety medication works on __________ transmission.
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b. serotonin
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6.1.100. Approximately what percentage of patients who have used a benzodiazepine for more than six months will experience withdrawal effects if they discontinue use of the drug?
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c. 40 percent
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6.1.101. Which of the following drugs is the first-line treatment for panic disorder and social anxiety?
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d. SSRIs
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6.1.102. Why do some psychiatrists prefer imipramine to antianxiety drugs for the treatment of panic disorder?
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d. It is less likely to lead to dependence.
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6.1.103. At a meeting of psychiatrists, you see a sign for a session titled "Antidepressant drugs: Not just for depression." A summary of the session indicates that the speaker will outline how selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors can be used in treating anxiety disorders. What are some reasons for using these drugs instead of antianxiety drugs?
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c. They have fewer side effects and are safer to use.
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6.1.104. A group of mental health professionals specialize in the treatment of anxiety disorders. Based on current empirical evidence, these professionals would be well advised to
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d. select specific treatments according to specific symptoms exhibited by their patients.