Micro Chapter 17

25 July 2022
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2. Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes? A. restriction endonucleases B. RNA methylase C. DNA ligase D. reverse transcriptase
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B. RNA methylase
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3. Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases? A. They make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions. B. They make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. C. Some make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions and some make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme. D. Depending on the incubation conditions, the same enzyme can either make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions OR make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme.
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C. Some make a blunt cut on the two DNA strands so that there are no single-strand regions and some make staggered cuts on the DNA so that single-strand ends are formed that can be used to insert foreign DNA cut with the same enzyme.
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4. When a eukaryotic gene is cloned into a bacterium, the advantage of a complementary DNA (cDNA) gene being used instead of fragments of genomic DNA is that A. the promoter and terminator are found in the cDNA gene but not in the genomic fragment. B. the introns have been removed from the cDNA gene but not from the genomic fragment. C. the cDNA is made with the nucleotides found in the prokaryote but not in the eukaryote. D. there is no advantage to using a cDNA gene rather than a genomic fragment.
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B. the introns have been removed from the cDNA gene but not from the genomic fragment.
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5. Restriction endonucleases in bacteria may have evolved in order to A. carry out natural genetic engineering. B. protect the bacteria from infection by viruses. C. use nucleic acids as a food (energy) source. D. all of the choices
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B. protect the bacteria from infection by viruses.
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6. Cloning a gene involves all of the following except A. isolating the fragment of DNA containing the desired gene. B. insertion of the gene into an appropriate vector. C. expression of the vector and the gene in a cell-free environment. D. introducing ligated DNA into E. coli cells.
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C. expression of the vector and the gene in a cell-free environment.
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7. An enzyme that cleaves internal phosphodiester bonds of a DNA molecule is a (n) A. exonuclease. B. endonuclease. C. ligase. D. methylase.
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B. endonuclease.
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8. Complementary DNA (cDNA) probes are produced using A. restriction endonucleases. B. RNA polymerase. C. DNA ligase. D. reverse transcriptase.
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D. reverse transcriptase.
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9. A __________ is a DNA molecule used in hybridization reactions to detect the presence of a particular gene in separated DNA fragments. A. plasmid B. vector C. probe D. blot
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C. probe
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10. In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium, the __________ must first be removed. A. introns B. exons C. enhancers D. 3' poly A sequence
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A. introns
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11. Which of the following was first produced commercially using recombinant DNA technology? A. Human growth hormone. B. Interleukins. C. Hepatitis B vaccine. D. Human insulin.
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D. Human insulin.
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12. The enzyme reverse transcriptase was discovered by A. Arber and Smith. B. Jackson, Symons, and Berg. C. Boyer and Cohen. D. Temin and Baltimore.
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D. Temin and Baltimore.
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13. Restriction endonucleases were discovered by A. Arber and Smith. B. Jackson, Symons, and Berg. C. Boyer and Cohen. D. Temin and Baltimore.
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A. Arber and Smith.
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14. Restriction endonucleases are produced by A. fungi. B. bacteria. C. protozoa. D. plants. E. all of the choices
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B. bacteria.
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18. The three steps that take place in each cycle during PCR occur in which order? A. DNA annealing, denaturation, and synthesis. B. DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis. C. DNA synthesis, denaturation, and annealing. D. none of the above.
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B. DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis.
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19. A PCR procedure that allows a determination of the amount of a particular DNA fragment that is present in a sample is called A. quantitative PCR. B. analytical PCR. C. real-time PCR. D. reverse PCR.
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C. real-time PCR.
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20. The PCR method was developed by A. Boyer. B. Mullis. C. Cohen. D. Sanger.
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B. Mullis.
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21. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to produce __________ of copies in a few hours. A. hundreds B. thousands C. millions D. billions
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D. billions
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22. Movement of charged molecules in an electrical field, which is used to separate nucleic acid fragments for recombinant DNA work, is called A. iontophoresis. B. nucleophoresis. C. electrophoresis. D. plasmaphoresis.
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C. electrophoresis.
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23. Which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during agarose gel electrophoresis? A. The fragments with the highest percentage of G and C will migrate fastest. B. The fragments with the highest percentage of A and T will migrate fastest. C. The largest fragments will migrate fastest. D. The smallest fragments will migrate fastest.
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D. The smallest fragments will migrate fastest.
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24. Which of the following is not true of cloning vectors? A. They usually contain multicloning sites or polylinkers. B. They contain at least two replication origins. C. They can be replicated within an appropriate host. D. All of these are true of cloning vectors.
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B. They contain at least two replication origins.
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25. Which of the following can be used as vectors for cloning DNA fragments? A. plasmids. B. cosmids. C. bacteriophages. D. all of the choices.
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D. all of the choices.
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26. Plasmid cloning vector DNA is usually introduced into bacterial hosts by A. ligation. B. transformation. C. transduction. D. plasmolysis.
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B. transformation.
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27. Plasmid vectors often contain __________ genes that can be used to screen for recombinants. A. metabolic activation B. antibiotic resistance C. insertion sequence D. promoter/operator
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B. antibiotic resistance
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28. A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism is called a A. plasmid. B. vector. C. probe. D. blot.
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B. vector.
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29. Antibiotics incorporated into the culture medium can A. select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid. B. select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired gene. C. enhance production of recombinant proteins. D. select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid and select against organisms that have incorporated a plasmid not containing the desired gene
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A. select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid.
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30. A (n) __________ vector is a plasmid that can be replicated in several different organisms because it has at least one origin of replication that will function in each host. A. shuttle B. chimeric C. expression D. phage
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A. shuttle
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31. ___________ is a bacterial plasmid vector. A. Lambda B. T4 DNA ligase C. pUC19 D. SV40
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C. pUC19
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32. Which of the following is not part of a yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)? A. The F factor. B. A selectable marker. C. An ARS. D. A CEN sequence.
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A. The F factor.
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33. Which of the following types of cloning vector can carry the largest amount of foreign DNA? A. bacterial artificial chromosome. B. bacteriophage. C. cosmid. D. plasmid.
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A. bacterial artificial chromosome.
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45. A (n) __________ vector contains promoters that result in high-level transcription of the gene cloned within a multicloning site. A. shuttle B. chimeric C. expression D. phage
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C. expression
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47. The most frequently chosen prokaryotic host in cloning techniques is A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae. B. Bacillus subtilis. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Escherichia coli.
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D. Escherichia coli.