70-688 Microsoft Windows 8.1 - Final Exam

25 July 2022
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question
When creating a BYOD policy, your questions usually revolve around three core areas of concern. Of the items listed below, which one of them is not usually one of these core areas of concern? A. How are the mobile devices protected? B. When will the mobile devices be allowed to connect? C. What can users access and not access on the network? D. What happens when users leave the company?
answer
B. When will the mobile devices be allowed to connect? When creating a BYOD policy, your questions usually revolve around how the mobile devices are protected, what users can and cannot access, and what happens when they leave the company.
question
What technology is natively provided by Microsoft Exchange Server for managing mobile devices? A. Microsoft SyncCenter B. Exchange ActiveSync C. Windows ActiveSync D. Exchange Server Connector
answer
B. Exchange ActiveSync Exchange ActiveSync is natively provided by Microsoft Exchange Server. EAS enables you to manage which mobile devices are allowed to connect to your network, as well as to control encryption, password, and access requirements. You can also remotely wipe a device if it is lost or stolen.
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What name is given to the chip in a mobile device that is used to identify and authenticate the device to the mobile network? A. Subscriber Identity Module B. Mobile Subscriber Integrated Services Digital Network Number C. International Mobile Subscriber Identity Number D. Mobile Authentication Module
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A. Subscriber Identity Module A subscriber identity module (SIM) is an integrated circuit on a small silicon chip. The SIM is embedded into a removable SIM card, which is used to identify and authenticate the user on mobile devices.
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Which of the following Windows features enables you to sync certain mobile devices? A. Mobile Device Sync B. Sync Center C. Device Sync Manager D. Sync Manager
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B. Sync Center Sync Center enables you to sync certain mobile devices as well as files stored in folders on network servers (offline files). When working with mobile devices, Microsoft recommends using the software that comes with your device (mobile phone, music device, and so on) to perform synchronization.
question
When configuring synchronization for offline files to occur when a trigger event happens, you have several options available to choose from. Which of the following is not one of those options? A. Sync when you log on to the computer B. Sync after a specified inactive period C. Sync when you lock Windows D. Sync when you restart Windows
answer
D. Sync when you restart Windows By selecting the When an event occurs option, you can additionally select from the following even trigger options: 1. You log on to your computer 2. Your computer is idle for x minutes/hours 3. You lock Windows 4. You unlock Windows
question
What happens when an offline file has been changed locally and in the remote location since the last synchronization has occurred? A. The most recently changed version is kept B. You are prompted to choose a way to resolve the conflict C. Synchronization will fail for that fail D. Both revisions are kept, and the oldest copy is renamed to include the date and time of the change
answer
B. You are prompted to choose a way to resolve the conflict A sync conflict occurs when you have two copies of a file stored in different locations (for example, locally and in a network folder) that have both changed since the last sync. A conflict can also occur if one user deletes a file (located in a shared folder) while another user makes a change to the same file while that user is offline. In either case, Sync Center will ask you how you want to address the conflict. You typically will overwrite the older file, but if you choose to keep both, Sync Center will rename one version and make a copy of both files in both locations. At this point, the files are no longer synchronized.
question
You want to enroll your Apple iPhone in Windows Intune. What do you have to request from Apple? A. An Apple Push Notification Service certificate B. An Apple company portal app from Apple Play C. An Apple Download certificate D. An Apple Identification certificate
answer
A. An Apple Push Notification Service certificate To enroll iOS devices, you need to obtain an Apple Push Notification Service certificate, which enables Windows Intune to securely communicate with the Apple Push Notification Service. To obtain an Apple Push Notification, you must download the Certificate Signing Request from Windows Intune and then request an Apple Push Notification Service certificate from the Apple website.
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By default, when will Windows install software updates? A. Daily at 1:00 AM B. Daily at 3:00 AM C. Sundays at 3:00 AM D. Saturdays at 1:00 AM
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B. Daily at 3:00 AM Windows runs automatic maintenance daily at 3:00AM (this is the default, but it can be changed) to perform tasks such as system diagnostics, security scanning, and software updates. Automatic maintenance occurs only if your computer is idle.
question
What command-line command can be executed to force a computer to contact its configured WSUS server immediately? A. wsus /updatenow B. wuauclt /detectnow C. wsusclt /refresh D. winupd /update
answer
B. wuauclt /detectnow You can use wuauclt /detectnow to force Windows client computers to contact and check-in with the WSUS server immediately.
question
Which of the following events does not happen when you decline an update? A. Any associated reported data is lost B. All approvals for the update are removed C. The update is hidden in default views in the Update console D. The update is removed from the console
answer
D. The update is removed from the console When you decline an update, the following happens: 1. All approvals for the update are removed. 2. The update is hidden in default views in the Update console. 3. Any associated reported data is lost.
question
If a site, domain, or OU has multiple GPOs, how are the Group Policy Objects processed? A. according to precedence B. according to importance C. according to administrative control D. according to GPO controller policy
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A. according to precedence If a site, domain, or OU has multiple GPOs, group policies are processed in order as stated by its precedence. A GPO with higher precedence (lower number) prevails over a GPO with lower precedence (higher number).
question
Which utility is used to set up loopback processing? A. Server Manager B. Active Directory Users and Groups C. Group Policy Management Editor D. PowerShell
answer
C. Group Policy Management Editor The loopback policy is enabled using the Group Policy Management Editor, specifically the Computer ConfigurationAdministrative TemplatesSystemGroup PolicyConfigure user Group Policy Loopback processing mode.
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What type of Windows Defender scan checks only the locations you specify? A. Full scan B. Quick scan C. Real-time scan D. Custom scan
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D. Custom scan A Custom scan is designed to check only locations and files you specify.
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What type of Windows Defender scan checks only the areas that are most likely contain malware? A. Full scan B. Quick scan C. Real-time scan D. Custom scan
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B. Quick scan A Quick scan checks the areas that malicious software, including viruses, spyware, and unwanted software are most likely to infect.
question
Which Windows Intune deployment configuration only allows you to manage your devices through the Administrator console and does not support discovery of mobile devices? A. Windows Intune Stand-Alone Cloud Configuration B. Windows Intune Cloud + On-Premise Configuration C. Windows Intune + System Center Configuration Manager D. Windows Intune Stand-Alone On-Premise Configuration
answer
A. Windows Intune Stand-Alone Cloud Configuration With the Windows Intune Stand-Alone Cloud configuration, you have to administer your computers and devices (Windows 8, Windows RT, Windows Phone 8, and Apple iOS) through the Administrator console. Although this configuration allows you to create and manage policies, inventory your devices, and upload and publish software, it does not support the discovery of mobile devices.
question
What can you use with Windows Intune to quickly organize and manage your computers and users? A. Domain Global Security Groups B. Windows Intune Groups C. Domain Universal Distribution Groups D. Windows Intune Collections
answer
B. Windows Intune Groups To make the process of deploying Windows Intune policies, software packages, and software updates more efficient, consider using Windows Intune Groups.
question
You want to configure the Windows firewall on Windows tablets that are part of your domain and that are managed through Windows Intune. What is the best way to manage these settings? A. Use Group Policy B. Use a Windows Intune Policy C. Use both Group Policy and a Windows Intune Policy D. Use Group Policy or Windows Intune Policy, but not both
answer
D. Use Group Policy or Windows Intune Policy, but not both Since Group Policy can be used to set many of the same settings, when you deploy Windows Intune client software and establish Windows Intune policies; you need to ensure that the clients do not receive GPOs with similar and/or conflicting settings.
question
Which Windows Intune report would be best to get information about the software updates that succeeded or failed? A. Detected Software Reports B. Update Reports C. Computer Inventory Reports D. License Installation Reports
answer
B. Update Reports Update Reports provide information about software updates that succeeded, failed, and are currently pending, or those that are needed on computers in your organization.
question
Which Windows Intune report would be best to get information about the software that is installed versus what is licensed? A. Detected Software Reports B. License Purchase Reports C. Computer Inventory Reports D. License Installation Reports
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D. License Installation Reports License Installation Reports compare installed software with your current licensing agreement.
question
Which Windows Intune report would be best to get information about the software that is installed on your computers? A. Detected Software Reports B. License Purchase Reports C. Computer Inventory Reports D. License Installation Reports
answer
A. Detected Software Reports Detected Software Reports provide information about software installed on computers in your organization.
question
In Windows Server 2012 R2, what virtual image file provides for the largest size? A. VHD files, up to 2 TB B. VHD files, up to 64 TB C. VHDX files, up to 2 TB D. VHDX files, up to 64 TB
answer
D. VHDX files, up to 64 TB VHD images are limited to a maximum size of 2 TB (terabytes) and are compatible with all versions of Hyper-V, as well as Microsoft's Type 2 hypervisor products, such as Virtual Server and Virtual PC. Windows Server 2012 R2 introduced an updated version of the format, which uses a VHDX filename extension. VHDX image files can be as large as 64 TB.
question
Which of the following represents the correct command to use to set the boot timeout value that controls the length of time the computer waits to load the default operating system? A. Bootrec /startdelay B. Bcdedit /loadwait C. Bootrec /loadpause D. Bcdedit /timeout
answer
D. Bcdedit /timeout Bcdedit /timeout can be used to configure the length of time the computer waits until the default operating system loads.
question
Which of the following functions does the System Preparation Utility (Sysprep.exe) perform on a system? A. It removes a system from the Active Directory domain. B. It removes a system's name and SID. C. It reboots the system and places it into capture mode. D. It starts the Snapshot Wizard in Windows server 2012 R2 Enterprise.
answer
B. It removes a system's name and SID. The Microsoft System Preparation Utility (Sysprep.exe) prepares a Windows computer for cloning by removing specific computer information such as the computer name and Security Identifier (SID).
question
What Hyper-V feature can you use to return to a known good previous state in your VM? A. Snapshot B. Rollback C. System Recovery D. Authoritative Restoration
answer
A. Snapshot When you are testing an application and want to troubleshoot compatibility issues or test a new application update before rolling it out to production machines, you can use the Hyper-V snapshot feature (right-click the machine and choose Snapshot). By taking a snapshot, you can return to a known state on the VM (for example, the state before you installed the application).
question
Which tool determines whether or not applications, devices, and computers will work with a new operating system, while maintaining the results into a database? A. Windows Upgrade Advisor B. Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) C. User State Migration Tool D. Windows Easy Transfer
answer
B. Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) The ACT Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) kit is used to determine whether or not applications, devices, and computers will work with a new operating system. Use it to gather inventory and assess your current environment in preparation for upgrades and migrations.
question
Which of the following tools can be used to resolve issues caused by User Account Control (UAC)? A. Log Processing Service B. Application Compatibility Manager C. Standard User Analyzer (SUA) D. User Experience Virtualization
answer
C. Standard User Analyzer (SUA) The Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool allows you to test your application and monitor for Application Program Interface (API) calls to detect issues related to the User Account Control (UAC) feature in Windows. It will monitor and report many issues including issues related to files, registry keys, initialization (.ini) files, tokens, privileges, namespaces, and processes. After you identify potential problems, you can use the SUA to apply the recommended fixes by creating and deploying an .msi file.
question
Which user roaming solution uses XML files to replicate changes to personal settings across multiple devices? A. Offline files/folders B. Folder redirection C. User Experience Virtualization (UE-V) D. Roaming user profiles
answer
C. User Experience Virtualization (UE-V) With UE-V, a user can make changes to his personal settings (operating system or applications) and then log into a Windows 7 or Windows 8 computer without having to reconfigure them each time. It does this by roaming the operating system settings. Although the V infers virtualization, UE-V does not virtualize system and application settings; instead, it monitors those changes using XML templates and then saves them to a file.
question
By default, how many days in advance of an Office 365 user's password expiring will the user begin receiving notifications of the upcoming expiration? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 21 days D. 28 days
answer
B. 14 days By default, users will begin to receive notifications of an upcoming account password expiration 14 days before the expiry date.
question
Which Office 365 deployment model is best for small organizations that wish to provide a self-service approach to installation? A. Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal B. Deploying from a network share C. Deploying using Group Policy D. Deploying using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
answer
A. Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal When you select to deploy directly from the Office 365 portal, you likely are an organization that does not have IT resources or you wish to provide a self-service approach.
question
Which Office 365 feature leverages SharePoint as a document repository and workspace? A. Maintenance B. Hardware C. Collaboration D. Software upgrades
answer
C. Collaboration Using SharePoint as a document repository and collaboration workspace, you can connect and work with a geographically dispersed workforce.
question
Which of the following would be considered a second-level domain? A. .com B. microsoft.com C. data.contoso.com D. east.microsoft.com
answer
B. microsoft.com Second-level domains include a top-level domain (.com, .org, etc.) and a unique name within that top-level domain (microsoft.com, consoto.org, etc.).
question
Which of the following encapsulates IPv6 packets within User Datagram Protocol (UDP) datagrams between two registered IPv4 nodes in order to traverse IPv4 networks? A. ISATAP B. 6to4 C. IPv4 D. Teredo
answer
D. Teredo Teredo enables devices behind non-IPv6 NAT routers to function as tunnel endpoints. To do this, Teredo encapsulates IPv6 packets within Transport-layer User Datagram Protocol (UDP) datagrams rather than Network-layer IPv4 datagrams, as 6to4 does.
question
What IEEE standard defines improved encryption for wireless networks including AES? A. 802.11i B. 802.11g C. 802.11n D. 802.11x
answer
A. 802.11i 802.11i provides improved encryption for networks using the 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g standards; introduces new encryption key protocols: Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES).
question
Which management solution for your off-network devices allows remote users to connect automatically whenever their clients detect an Internet connection? A. Windows Intune B. Network Access Protection C. Virtual Private Network D. DirectAccess
answer
D. DirectAccess DirectAccess allows remote users to connect automatically whenever their clients detect an Internet connection.
question
When using the CMAK to create a VPN profile, what must you do if you select the Allow the user to choose a VPN server before connecting option? A. A list of VPN servers must be entered into the Wizard B. VPN servers must have DNS host A records created for them which include "vpn" in the name C. You must provide a text listing of VPN servers D. All of the VPN servers must be added to a specific security group
answer
C. You must provide a text listing of VPN servers If you select the option Allow the user to choose a VPN server before connecting, you are required provide a text file that lists the VPN servers from which the user can choose.
question
Which of the following tools requires invitations to use? A. Remote Desktop B. Remote Assistance C. Computer Management console D. Computer Assistant
answer
B. Remote Assistance To request a Remote Assistance session, a client must issue an invitation and send it to a particular expert. The client can send the invitation using email or save it as a file to be sent to the expert in some other manner.
question
Digital certificates, smart cards, picture passwords, and biometrics are used to perform what action? A. Integrity B. Confidentiality C. Authorization D. Authentication
answer
D. Authentication Authentication represents the way that security principals (users, computers, and processes) prove their identity before they are allowed to connect to your network. In the past, authentication was handled through the use of passwords. Today, additional authentication tools, including digital certificates, smart cards, picture passwords, and biometrics, are used.
question
What is used to find computers, users, and other resources throughout an Active Directory forest? A. Key Distribution Center B. Global Catalog C. Kerberos D. Iterative Query
answer
B. Global Catalog When you implement multiple domains, a feature called the Global Catalog is used to find users, computers, and resources throughout the other domains.
question
For users at home, which file sharing is most likely the simplest to set up and use? A. Any folder sharing B. Public folder sharing C. Homegroup sharing D. None of the above
answer
C. Homegroup sharing The type of sharing method you elect to use depends on the size and formality of the network to which the computer is connected. For home users, homegroup networking is simple to set up and use. For small business networkers, Public folder sharing is often the easiest method, one that users can easily maintain for themselves on a day-to-day basis. For larger networks, Windows domain networks, or any network with more elaborate security requirements, any folder sharing is preferable.
question
What term refers to preventing people from reading information they are not authorized to read? A. Authorization B. Integrity C. Nonrepudiation D. Confidentiality
answer
D. Confidentiality Confidentiality is about preventing people from reading information they are not authorized to read. Confidentiality is handled through the use of encryption technologies.
question
What disk drive interface type provides data transfer throughput at rates up to 600 Mbps to external devices? A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) B. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) C. External SATA (eSATA) D. Universal Serial Bus (USB)
answer
C. External SATA (eSATA) Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a serial interface that transfers data in bursts instead of parallel. It comes in three varieties: 1.5 Gbps (SATA-1.0), 3 Gbps (SATA-2.0), and 6 Gbps (SATA 3.0). These have maximum throughputs of 150 Mbps, 300 Mbps and 600 Mbps. External SATA (eSATA) extends the SATA bus to external devices.
question
Which PowerShell cmdlet correctly represents how to enable BranchCache on a Web server? A. Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache B. Enable-WindowsFeature BranchCache C. Start-WindowsFeature BranchCache D. Provision-WindowsFeature BranchCache
answer
A. Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache You will use the Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache cmdlet to enable BranchCache on a Web or application server.
question
The default DFS namespace mode is Windows Server 2008, which supports up to 50,000 folders. How many folders does using non-Windows Server 2008 provide? A. 500 B. 1,500 C. 3,000 D. 5,000
answer
D. 5,000 When you create a namespace, the Windows Server 2008 mode is selected by default, which supports up to 50,000 folders with targets per namespace and access-based enumeration. If you deselect the Windows Server 2008 mode, you will use the Windows 2000 Server mode, which supports only up to 5,000 folders.
question
What is the net effect of the following combination of share and NTFS permissions when the share is accessed over the network? Share permission (Share tab)-Sales group: Full Control NTFS permission (Security tab)-Sales group: Read & Execute, Modify, Write A. Members of the Sales group will be able to take ownership of files and edit content, but not delete files B. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content and delete files C. Members of the Sales group will be able to take ownership of files, edit content, and change NTFS permissions D. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content, delete files, and change NTFS permissions
answer
B. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content and delete files The Full Control share permission would normally allow users to take ownership of files, but lacking the corresponding NTFS permissions to do so, the more restrictive scenario wins and the users are only to edit and delete files, but not otherwise modify permissions or ownership.
question
What Group Policy setting will you need to use to disallow the usage of portable media devices on your domain's computers? A. Prevent usage of removable devices B. Prevent installation of removable devices C. Block transfer to portable devices D. Block installation of portable storage
answer
B. Prevent installation of removable devices The Prevent installation of removable devices setting prevents Windows from installing removable devices. A device is considered removable when the driver for the device to which it is connected indicates the device is removable.
question
Which NTFS permission should you configure for a security group when you want members of the group to be able to create new files but not make changes to existing files? A. Writable B. Full Control C. Read & Execute D. Write
answer
D. Write The Write permission enables a user/group to create files and folders. Write is going to need to be paired up with Read or Read & Execute, however.
question
When using TPM with BitLocker, what mode requires that the user provide a USB flash drive with the keys before the computer can boot into Windows? A. TPM-SmartCard mode B. TPM-PIN mode C. TPM-Startup Key mode D. No TPM mode
answer
C. TPM-Startup Key mode TPM-Startup Key mode validates boot files, operating system files, and any BitLocker-encrypted volumes. The user must use a USB flash drive with the keys before the computer can boot into Windows.
question
The Reliability Monitor provides a range of numbers to help you evaluate the reliability of a computer. What is the name of this range of numbers? A. Reliability Index B. Stability Index C. Event Index D. Evaluation Index
answer
B. Stability Index The Reliability Monitor provides a stability index that ranges from 1 (the least stable) to 10 (the most stable). You can use the index to help evaluate the reliability of your computer.
question
When running the DaRT Recovery Image tool on a Windows 8 64-bit computer, how much memory is required to be installed? A. 1 GB B. 1.5 GB C. 2 GB D. 2.5 GB
answer
D. 2.5 GB To run DaRT on a Windows 8 x64 PC, you need at least 2.5 GB of memory.
question
To relieve a performance bottleneck or to increase overall performance, what one thing can you do to a system? A. Reboot it. B. Defragment the hard drive. C. Add more RAM. D. Chart the performance over time.
answer
C. Add more RAM. One of the most common bottlenecks is the amount of memory the system has. By increasing the memory, you can often increase the overall performance of a system-up to a point.