Prep-U Chapter 49 Assessment And Management Of Patient With Hepatic Disorders

25 July 2022
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question
A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about hepatitis. Which of the following would the nurse include?
answer
Hepatitis C increases a person's risk for liver cancer. Explanation: Infection with hepatitis C increases the risk of a person developing hepatic (liver) cancer. Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily by the oral-fecal route; hepatitis B is frequently spread by sexual contact and infected blood. Hepatitis E is similar to hepatitis A whereas hepatitis G is similar to hepatitis C.
question
A client with esophageal varices is scheduled to undergo injection sclerotherapy. Which of the following client statements indicates that the teaching was successful?
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"I might need to have this procedure done again." Explanation: Persistent portal hypertension allows varices to form again, making it necessary to repeat injection sclerotherapy or variceal banding regularly. Injection sclerotherapy involves passing an endoscope orally to locate the varix. Balloon tamponade is used to compress actively bleeding esophageal varices as a temporary measure. Variceal banding involves using a rubber band over the varix to restrict blood flow that eventually leads to sloughing.
question
In what location would the nurse palpate for the liver?
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Right upper quadrant Explanation: The liver may be palpable in the right upper quadrant. A palpable liver presents as a firm, sharp ridge with a smooth surface.
question
A client with severe and chronic liver disease is showing manifestations related to inadequate vitamin intake and metabolism. He reports difficulty driving at night because he cannot see well. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient for this client?
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Vitamin A Explanation: Problems common to clients with severe chronic liver dysfunction result from inadequate intake of sufficient vitamins. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes. Thiamine deficiency can lead to beriberi, polyneuritis, and Wernicke-Korsakoff psychosis. Riboflavin deficiency results in characteristic skin and mucous membrane lesions. Vitamin K deficiency can cause hypoprothrombinemia, characterized by spontaneous bleeding and ecchymoses.
question
A nurse educator is providing an in-service to a group of nurses working on a medical floor that specializes in liver disorders. What is an important education topic regarding ingestion of medications?
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metabolism of medications Explanation: Careful evaluation of the client's response to drug therapy is important because the malfunctioning liver cannot metabolize many substances.
question
A nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about hepatitis. Which of the following would the nurse include?
answer
Hepatitis C increases a person's risk for liver cancer. Explanation: Infection with hepatitis C increases the risk of a person developing hepatic (liver) cancer. Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily by the oral-fecal route; hepatitis B is frequently spread by sexual contact and infected blood. Hepatitis E is similar to hepatitis A whereas hepatitis G is similar to hepatitis C.
question
The nurse identifies which type of jaundice in an adult experiencing a transfusion reaction?
answer
Hemolytic Explanation: Hemolytic jaundice occurs because, although the liver is functioning normally, it cannot excrete the bilirubin as quickly as it is formed. This type of jaundice is encountered in clients with hemolytic transfusion reactions and other hemolytic disorders. Obstructive and hepatocellular jaundice are the result of liver disease. Nonobstructive jaundice occurs with hepatitis.
question
A client with cirrhosis has a massive hemorrhage from esophageal varices. Balloon tamponade is used temporarily to control hemorrhage and stabilize the client. In planning care, the nurse gives the highest priority to which goal?
answer
Maintaining the airway Explanation: Esophageal varices are almost always caused by portal hypertension, which results from obstruction of the portal circulation within the damaged liver. Maintaining the airway is the highest priority because oxygenation is essential for life. The airway can be compromised by possible displacement of the tube and the inflated balloon into the oropharynx, which can cause life-threatening obstruction of the airway and asphyxiation.
question
What initial measure can the nurse implement to reduce risk of injury for a client with liver disease?
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Pad the side rails on the bed Explanation: Padding the side rails can reduce injury if the client becomes agitated or restless. Restraints would not be an initial measure to implement. Four side rails are considered a restraint, and this would not be an initial measure to implement. Family and friends generally assist in calming a client.
question
Alcohol, which is toxic to the liver, is a common cause of hepatic disorders. As part of health teaching, the nurse advises a group of women that the amount of daily alcohol use should be limited to the equivalent of:
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Two 6 oz glasses of wine. Explanation: Intake of 60 g/day for men and 30 g/d for women (10 g of alcohol is equivalent to 1 oz of bourbon, 12 ounces of beer, or 4 ounces of red wine) is sufficient to cause liver injury.
question
A client is admitted for suspected GI disease. Assessment data reveal muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendency. The nurse suspects the client ha
answer
cirrhosis. Explanation: Muscle wasting, a decrease in chest and axillary hair, and increased bleeding tendencies are all symptoms of cirrhosis. The client may also have mild fever, edema, abdominal pain, and an enlarged liver. Clients with peptic ulcer disease complain of a dull, gnawing epigastric pain that's relieved by eating. Appendicitis is characterized by a periumbilical pain that moves to the right lower quadrant and rebound tenderness. Cholelithiasis is characterized by severe abdominal pain that presents several hours after a large meal.
question
Clients with chronic liver dysfunction have problems with insufficient vitamin intake. Which may occur as a result of vitamin C deficiency?
answer
Scurvy Explanation: Scurvy may result from a vitamin C deficiency. Night blindness, hypoprothrombinemia, and beriberi do not result from a vitamin C deficiency.
question
When performing a physical examination on a client with cirrhosis, a nurse notices that the client's abdomen is enlarged. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider?
answer
Measure abdominal girth according to a set routine. Explanation: If the abdomen appears enlarged, the nurse measures it according to a set routine. The nurse reports any change in mental status or signs of gastrointestinal bleeding immediately. It is not essential for the client to take laxatives unless prescribed. The client's food intake does not affect the size of the abdomen in case of cirrhosis.
question
The nurse is preparing to interview a client with cirrhosis. Based on an understanding of this disorder, which question would be most important to include?
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"How often do you drink alcohol?" Explanation: The most common type of cirrhosis results from chronic alcohol intake and is frequently associated with poor nutrition. Although it can follow chronic poisoning with chemicals or ingestion of hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen, asking about alcohol intake would be most important. Asking about an infection or exposure to hepatotoxins or industrial chemicals would be important if the client had postnecrotic cirrhosis.
question
Total parental nutrition (TPN) should be used cautiously in clients with pancreatitis because such clients:
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cannot tolerate high-glucose concentration. Explanation: Total parental nutrition (TPN) is used carefully in clients with pancreatitis because some clients cannot tolerate a high-glucose concentration even with insulin coverage. Intake of coffee increases the risk for gallbladder contraction, whereas intake of high protein increases risk for hepatic encephalopathy in clients with cirrhosis. Patients with pancreatitis should not be given high-fat foods because they are difficult to digest.
question
A client is suspected of having cirrhosis of the liver. What diagnostic procedure will the nurse prepare the client for in order to obtain a confirmed diagnosis?
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A liver biopsy Explanation: A liver biopsy, which reveals hepatic fibrosis, is the most conclusive diagnostic procedure. It can be performed in the radiology department with ultrasound or CT to identify appropriate placement of the trocar or biopsy needle. A prothrombin time and platelet count will assist with determining if the client is at increased risk for bleeding.
question
The nurse is providing care to a patient with gross ascites who is maintaining a position of comfort in the high semi-Fowler's position. What is the nurse's priority assessment of this patient?
answer
Respiratory assessment related to increased thoracic pressure Explanation: If a patient with ascites from liver dysfunction is hospitalized, nursing measures include assessment and documentation of intake and output (I&O;), abdominal girth, and daily weight to assess fluid status. The nurse also closely monitors the respiratory status because large volumes of ascites can compress the thoracic cavity and inhibit adequate lung expansion. The nurse monitors serum ammonia, creatinine, and electrolyte levels to assess electrolyte balance, response to therapy, and indications of encephalopathy.
question
A patient with suspected esophageal varices is scheduled for an upper endoscopy with moderate sedation. After the procedure is performed, how long should the nurse withhold food and fluids?
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Until the gag reflex returns Explanation: After the endoscopic examination, fluids are not given until the patient's gag reflex returns.
question
Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from:
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The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Explanation: Circumstances that increase serum ammonia levels tend to aggravate or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. Ammonia from these sources increases as a result of GI bleeding (ie, bleeding esophageal varices, chronic GI bleeding), a high-protein diet, bacterial infection, or uremia.
question
An important message for any nurse to communicate is that drug-induced hepatitis is a major cause of acute liver failure. The medication that is the leading cause is:
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Acetaminophen Explanation: Although any medication can affect liver function, use of acetaminophen (found in many over-the-counter medications used to treat fever and pain) has been identified as the leading cause of acute liver failure. Other medications commonly associated with liver injury include anesthetic agents, medications used to treat rheumatic and musculoskeletal disease, antidepressants, psychotropic medications, anticonvulsants, and antituberculosis agents.
question
After being in remission from Hodgkin's disease for 18 months, a client develops a fever of unknown origin. The physician orders a blind liver biopsy to rule out advancing Hodgkin's disease and infection. Twenty-four hours after the biopsy, the client has a fever, complains of severe abdominal pain, and seems increasingly confused. The nurse suspects that these findings result from:
answer
perforation of the colon caused by the liver biopsy. Explanation: After any invasive procedure, the nurse must stay alert for complications in the affected region β€” in this case, the abdomen. This client exhibits classic signs and symptoms of a perforated colon β€” severe abdominal pain, fever, and a decreasing level of consciousness. After detecting these findings, the nurse must notify the physician immediately β€” the client is experiencing a medical emergency and requires abdominal surgery and bowel resection. There is no reason to suspect bleeding resulting from the liver biopsy, although this condition must be ruled out. Bleeding would cause hypotension and signs of decreasing perfusion to major organs, not severe pain. Liver biopsy doesn't involve the use of contrast media.
question
A client with acute liver failure exhibits confusion, a declining level of consciousness, and slowed respirations. The nurse finds him very difficult to arouse. The diagnostic information which best explains the client's behavior is:
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subnormal serum glucose and elevated serum ammonia levels. Explanation: In acute liver failure, serum ammonia levels increase because the liver can't adequately detoxify the ammonia produced in the GI tract. In addition, serum glucose levels decline because the liver isn't capable of releasing stored glucose. Elevated serum ammonia and subnormal serum glucose levels depress the level of a client's consciousness. Elevated liver enzymes, low serum protein level, subnormal clotting factors and platelet count, elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels, and hyperglycemia aren't as directly related to the client's level of consciousness.
question
A nurse is caring for a client with cholelithiasis. Which sign indicates obstructive jaundice?
answer
Clay-colored stools Explanation: Obstructive jaundice develops when a stone obstructs the flow of bile in the common bile duct. When the flow of bile to the duodenum is blocked, the lack of bile pigments results in a clay-colored stool. In obstructive jaundice, urine tends to be dark amber (not straw-colored) as a result of soluble bilirubin in the urine. Hematocrit levels aren't affected by obstructive jaundice. Because obstructive jaundice prevents bilirubin from reaching the intestine (where it's converted to urobilinogen), the urine contains no urobilinogen.
question
Which medication is used to decrease portal pressure, halting bleeding of esophageal varices?
answer
Vasopressin Explanation: Vasopressin may be the initial therapy for esophageal varices because it produces constriction of the splanchnic arterial bed and decreases portal hypertension. Nitroglycerin has been used to prevent the side effects of vasopressin. Spironolactone and cimetidine do not decrease portal hypertension.
question
Which assessments are important in a client diagnosed with ascites?
answer
Measurement of abdominal girth Explanation: Measurement of abdominal girth, weight, and palpation of the abdomen for a fluid shift are all important assessment parameters for the client diagnosed with ascites. Foul-smelling breath would not be considered an important assessment for this client.
question
A client is actively bleeding from esophageal varices. Which of the following medications would the nurse most expect to be administered to this client?
answer
Vasopressin (Pitressin) Explanation: In an actively bleeding client, medications are administered initially because they can be obtained and administered quicker than other therapies. Vasopressin (Pitressin) may be the initial mode of therapy in urgent situations, because it produces constriction of the splanchnic arterial bed and decreases portal pressure. Propranolol (Inderal) and nadolol (Corgard), beta-blocking agents that decrease portal pressure, are the most common medications used both to prevent a first bleeding episode in clients with known varices and to prevent rebleeding. Beta-blockers should not be used in acute variceal hemorrhage, but they are effective prophylaxis against such an episode. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone-blocking agent, is most often the first-line therapy in clients with ascites from cirrhosis. Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
question
A 33-year-old male patient with a history of IV heroin and cocaine use has been admitted to the medical unit for the treatment of endocarditis. The nurse should recognize that this patient is also likely to test positive for which of the following hepatitis viruses?
answer
Hepatitis C Explanation: Transmission of hepatitis C occurs primarily through injection of drugs and through transfusion of blood products prior to 1992. Hepatitis A, B, and D are less likely to result from IV drug use.
question
Which of the following is the most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection
answer
Vaccine Explanation: The most effective strategy to prevent hepatitis B infection is through vaccination. Recommendations to prevent transmission of hepatitis B include vaccination of sexual contacts of individuals with chronic hepatitis, use of barrier protection during sexual intercourse, avoidance of sharing toothbrushes, razors with others, and covering open sores or skin lesions.
question
Ac client with a lengthy history of alcohol addiction is diagnosed with cirrhosis. The nurse emphasizes that the principal goal of cirrhosis therapy is:
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Ac client with a lengthy history of alcohol addiction is diagnosed with cirrhosis. The nurse emphasizes that the principal goal of cirrhosis therapy is:
question
The nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis of the liver and observes that the patient is having hand-flapping tremors. What does the nurse document this finding as?
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Asterixis Explanation: Asterixis, an involuntary flapping of the hands, may be seen in stage II encephalopathy (Fig. 49-13).
question
A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. The nurse assesses the client at noon and discovers that the client is difficult to arouse and has an elevated serum ammonia level. The nurse should suspect which situation?
answer
The client's hepatic function is decreasing. Explanation: The decreased level of consciousness caused by an increased serum ammonia level indicates hepatic disfunction. If the client didn't take his morning dose of lactulose, he wouldn't have elevated ammonia levels and decreased level of consciousness this soon. These assessment findings don't indicate that the client is relaxed or avoiding the nurse.
question
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order for a client with cirrhosis who develops portal hypertension?
answer
Spironolactone (Aldactone) Explanation: For portal hypertension, a diuretic usually an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone (Aldactone) is ordered. Kanamycin (Kantrex) would be used to treat hepatic encephalopathy to destroy intestinal microorganisms and decrease ammonia production. Lactulose would be used to reduce serum ammonia concentration in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) would be used to prevent graft rejection after a transplant.
question
Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a client with hepatic encephalopathy?
answer
Asterixis Explanation: Hepatic encephalopathy is manifested by numerous central nervous system effects including: disorientation, confusion, personality changes, memory loss, a flapping tremor called asterixis, a positive Babinski reflex, sulfurous breath odor (referred to as fetor hepaticus), and lethargy to deep coma.
question
Gynecomastia is a common side effect of which of the following diuretics?
answer
Spironolactone (Aldactone) Explanation: Gynecomastia is a common side effect caused by spironolactone. Pitressin is used for bleeding esophageal varices and is not a diuretic. Nitroglycerin (IV) may be used with vasopressin to counteract the effects of vasoconstriction from the vasopressin.
question
What is the recommended dietary treatment for a client with chronic cholecystitis?
answer
low-fat diet Explanation: The bile secreted from the gallbladder helps the body absorb and break down dietary fats. If the gallbladder is not functioning properly, then it will not secrete enough bile to help digest the dietary fat. This can lead to further complications; therefore, a diet low in fat can be used to prevent complications.
question
The nurse is administering medications to a client that has elevated ammonia due to cirrhosis of the liver. What medication will the nurse give to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent?
answer
Lactulose Explanation: Lactulose is administered to detoxify ammonium and to act as an osmotic agent, drawing water into the bowel, which causes diarrhea in some clients. Potassium-sparing diuretics such as spironolactone are used to treat ascites. Cholestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant and reduces pruritus. Kanamycin decreases intestinal bacteria and decreases ammonia but does not act as an osmotic agent.
question
A client comes to the clinic and informs the nurse that he is there to see the physician for right upper abdominal discomfort, nausea, and frequent belching especially after eating a meal high in fat. What disorder do these symptoms correlate with?
answer
Cholelithiasis Explanation: Initially, with cholelithiasis clients experience belching, nausea, and right upper quadrant discomfort, with pain or cramps after high-fat meal. Symptoms become acute when a stone blocks bile flow from the gallbladder. With acute cholecystitis, clients usually are very sick with fever, vomiting, tenderness over the liver, and severe pain called biliary colic. The symptoms do not correlate with hepatitis.
question
What test should the nurse prepare the client for that will locate stones that have collected in the common bile duct?
answer
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Explanation: ERCP locates stones that have collected in the common bile duct. A colonoscopy will not locate gallstones but only allows visualization of the large intestine. Abdominal x-ray is not a reliable locator of gallstones. A cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder.
question
When caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy, which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?
answer
Change in the client's handwriting and/or cognitive performance Explanation: The earliest symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include mental status changes and motor disturbances. The client will appear confused and unkempt and have altered mood and sleep patterns. Neurologic status should be assessed frequently. Mental status is monitored by the nurse keeping the client's daily record of handwriting and arithmetic performance. The nurse should report any change in mental status immediately. Chronic fatigue, anorexia, dyspepsia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea or constipation with accompanying weight loss are regular symptoms of cirrhosis.
question
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?
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"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months." Explanation: Both forms of the hepatitis B vaccine are administered intramuscularly in three doses; the second and third doses are given 1 and 6 months, respectively, after the first dose.
question
After undergoing a liver biopsy, a client should be placed in which position?
answer
Right lateral decubitus position Explanation: After a liver biopsy, the client is placed on the right side (right lateral decubitus position) to exert pressure on the liver and prevent bleeding. Semi-Fowler's position and the supine and prone positions wouldn't achieve this goal.
question
While conducting a physical examination of a client, which of the following skin findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of liver problems? Select all that apply.
answer
Jaundice Petechiae Ecchymoses Explanation: The skin, mucosa, and sclerae are inspected for jaundice. The nurse observes the skin for petechiae or ecchymotic areas (bruises), spider angiomas, and palmar erythema. Cyanosis of the lips is indicative of a problem with respiratory or cardiovascular dysfunction. Aphthous stomatitis is a term for mouth ulcers and is a gastrointestinal abnormal finding.
question
A patient is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. He has hematemesis and alteration in mental status. The patient has tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and hypotension. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse. What would the nurse suspect the patient has?
answer
Bleeding esophageal varices Explanation: The patient with bleeding esophageal varices may present with hematemesis, melena, or general deterioration in mental or physical status and often has a history of alcohol abuse. Signs and symptoms of shock (cool clammy skin, hypotension, tachycardia) may be present. The scenario does not describe hemolytic jaundice, hepatic insufficiency, or portal hypertension.
question
Which type of deficiency results in macrocytic anemia?
answer
Folic acid Explanation: Folic acid deficiency results in macrocytic anemia. Vitamin C deficiency results in hemorrhagic lesions of scurvy. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness and eye and skin changes. Vitamin K deficiency results in hypoprothrombinemia, which is characterized by spontaneous bleeding and ecchymosis.
question
A middle-aged obese female presents to the ED with severe radiating right-sided flank pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. A likely cause of these symptoms is:
answer
acute cholecystitis Explanation: Gallstones are more frequent in women, particularly women who are middle-aged and obese. With acute cholecystitis, clients usually are very sick with fever, vomiting, tenderness over the liver, and severe pain that may radiate to the back and shoulders. The patient profile and symptoms are suggestive of acute cholecystitis.
question
A preoperative client scheduled to have an open cholecystectomy says to the nurse, "The doctor said that after surgery, I will have a tube in my nose that goes into my stomach. Why do I need that?" What most common reason for a client having a nasogastric tube in place after abdominal surgery should the nurse include in a response?
answer
decompression Explanation: Negative pressure exerted through a tube inserted in the stomach removes secretions and gaseous substances from the stomach, preventing abdominal distention, nausea, and vomiting. Instillations in a nasogastric tube after surgery are done when necessary to promote patency; this is not the most common purpose of a nasogastric tube after surgery. Gavage is contraindicated after abdominal surgery until peristalsis returns. Lavage after surgery may be done to promote hemostasis in the presence of gastric bleeding, but this is not the most common purpose of a nasogastric tube after surgery.
question
A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery?
answer
Vitamin K Explanation: Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency. Potassium would be given only if the client's serum potassium levels were low. Oral bile acids are not prescribed for a client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; they are given to dissolve gallstones. Vitamin B has no implications in the surgery.
question
A client with cirrhosis has portal hypertension, which is causing esophageal varices. What is the goal of the interventions that the nurse will provide?
answer
Reduce fluid accumulation and venous pressure. Explanation: Methods of treating portal hypertension aim to reduce fluid accumulation and venous pressure. There is no cure for cirrhosis; treating the esophageal varices is only a small portion of the overall objective. Promoting optimal neurologic function will not reduce portal hypertension.
question
Which liver function study is used to show the size of the liver and hepatic blood flow and obstruction?
answer
Radioisotope liver scan Explanation: A radioisotope liver scan assesses liver size and hepatic blood flow and obstruction. MRI is used to identify normal structures and abnormalities of the liver and biliary tree. Angiography is used to visualize hepatic circulation and detect the presence and nature of hepatic masses. EEG is used to detect abnormalities that occur with hepatic coma.
question
The nurse is administering Cephulac (lactulose) to decrease the ammonia level in a patient who has hepatic encephalopathy. What should the nurse carefully monitor for that may indicate a medication overdose?
answer
Watery diarrhea Explanation: The patient receiving lactulose is monitored closely for the development of watery diarrhea stools, because they indicate a medication overdose. Serum ammonia levels are closely monitored as well.
question
A client is admitted with increased ascites related to cirrhosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive top priority?
answer
Ineffective breathing pattern Explanation: In ascites, accumulation of large amounts of fluid causes extreme abdominal distention, which may put pressure on the diaphragm and interfere with respiration. If uncorrected, this problem may lead to atelectasis or pneumonia. Although fluid volume excess is present, the diagnosis Ineffective breathing pattern takes precedence because it can lead more quickly to life-threatening consequences. The nurse can deal with fatigue and altered nutrition after the client establishes and maintains an effective breathing pattern.
question
A client with liver and renal failure has severe ascites. On initial shift rounds, his primary nurse finds his indwelling urinary catheter collection bag too full to store more urine. The nurse empties more than 2,000 ml from the collection bag. One hour later, she finds the collection bag full again. The nurse notifies the physician, who suspects that a bladder rupture is allowing the drainage of peritoneal fluid. The physician orders a urinalysis to be obtained immediately. The presence of which substance is considered abnormal?
answer
Albumin Explanation: Albumin is an abnormal finding in a routine urine specimen. Ascites present in liver failure contain albumin; therefore, if the bladder ruptured, ascites containing albumin would drain from the indwelling urinary catheter because the catheter is no longer contained in the bladder. Creatinine, urobilinogen, and chloride are normally found in urine.
question
A client has undergone a liver biopsy. Which postprocedure position is appropriate?
answer
On the right side Explanation: In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded. Positioning the client on his left side is not indicated. Positioning the client in the Trendelenburg position may be indicated if the client is in shock, but is not the position designed for the client after liver biopsy. The high Fowler position is not indicated for the client after liver biopsy.
question
Which position should be used for a client undergoing a paracentesis?
answer
Upright at the edge of the bed Explanation: The client should be placed in an upright position on the edge of the bed or in a chair with the feet supported on a stool. The Fowler position should be used for the client confined to bed.
question
In what location would the nurse palpate for the liver?
answer
Right upper quadrant Explanation: The liver may be palpable in the right upper quadrant. A palpable liver presents as a firm, sharp ridge with a smooth surface.
question
Which of the following diagnostic studies definitely confirms the presence of ascites?
answer
Ultrasound of liver and abdomen Explanation: Ultrasonography of the liver and abdomen will definitively confirm the presence of ascites. An abdominal x-ray, colonoscopy, and computed tomography of the abdomen would not confirm the presence of ascites.
question
Most of the liver's metabolic functions are performed by:
answer
parenchymal cells. Explanation: The parenchymal cells perform most of the liver's metabolic functions
question
A client who was recently diagnosed with carcinoma of the pancreas and is having a procedure in which the head of the pancreas is removed. In addition, the surgeon will remove the duodenum and stomach, redirecting the flow of secretions from the stomach, gallbladder, and pancreas into the middle section of the small intestine. What procedure is this client having performed?
answer
radical pancreatoduodenectomy Explanation: Radical pancreatoduodenectomy involves removing the head of the pancreas, resecting the duodenum and stomach, and redirecting the flow of secretions from the stomach, gallbladder, and pancreas into the jejunum. Cholecystojejunostomy is a rerouting of the pancreatic and biliary drainage systems, which may be done to relieve obstructive jaundice. This measure is considered palliative only. A pancreatectomy is the surgical removal of the pancreas. A pancreatectomy may be total, in which case the entire organ is removed, usually along with the spleen, gallbladder, common bile duct, and portions of the small intestine and stomach. A distal pancreatectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the bottom half of the pancreas.
question
A female client with chronic hepatitis B has been prescribed recombinant interferon alfa-2b in combination with ribavirin. Which of the following instructions should a nurse provide this client?
answer
Use strict birth control methods. Explanation: A female client who has been prescribed recombinant interferon alpha-2b in combination with ribavirin should be instructed to use strict birth control methods. This is because ribavirin may cause birth defects. It is not essential for the client to avoid calcium-rich foods or hot baths or soaks. The client needs to maintain physical rest during therapy.
question
Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from:
answer
The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Explanation: Circumstances that increase serum ammonia levels tend to aggravate or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. Ammonia from these sources increases as a result of GI bleeding (ie, bleeding esophageal varices, chronic GI bleeding), a high-protein diet, bacterial infection, or uremia.