MicroEconomics Test 2 example #9062

14 June 2023
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question
Other things equal, when does the demand for a good tend to be more inelastic?
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When there are fewer available substituents.
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The number of CDs purchased increased by 5 percent when consumer income increased by 10 percent. Assuming other factors are held constant, how would CDs be classified?
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As normal goods
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An increase in the price of computer diskettes leads to an increase in total expenditures on the diskettes. Which of the following is true for this price change?
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The demand for computer diskettes is inelastic.
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Which of the following is true along the inelastic portion of a demand curve?
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The percentage change in price will be more than the percentage change in quantity demanded.
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What happens to a total revenue if the demand for a good is elastic?
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Total revenue increases as price decreases.
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If demand price elasticity measures 2, this implies that consumers would
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buy 2 percent more of the product in response to a 1 percent drop in price.
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If the income elasticity of demand for a good is negative, this implies
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as income rises, the demand for the good will fall.
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If a large percentage increase in the price of a good results in a small percentage reduction in the quantity demanded of the good, demand is said to be
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Relatively inelastic
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What happens to elasticity of demand when a good is more broadly defined?
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The fewer substitutes it has so the less elastic is its demand.
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When the price elasticity of demand is large, then
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he responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price is large.
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If a Pizza Hut restaurant near campus increases its prices by 10 percent, and as a result, its sales revenue increases by 3 percent, the price elasticity of demand for the services offered by the restaurant must be
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inelastic
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If the price of apples increase, total expenditures on apples will decline if
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the demand for apples is elastic
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What do economists mean when they say the price elasticity of supply is elastic?
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Suppliers are willing to produce much larger amounts of their good.
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Tele-Com, Inc., the nation's largest cable TV company, tested the effect of a price reduction for the Disney Channel. It lowered prices from $10.75 to $7.95 and found that the number of customers more than doubled. What caused the change?
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The demand for the Disney Channel is elastic in this price range.
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Goods that consumers regard as luxuries generally have
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an income elasticity greater than 1.
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The price elasticity of demand for a commodity is determined primarily by which of the following?
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The attractiveness of the substitutes for the good.
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If bus travel is an inferior good, then its income elasticity of demand will be
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negative
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The principle of diminishing marginal utility says that
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the marginal utility of additional units costumed will decline
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What is marginal utility?
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The change in total utility when an extra unit of output is consumed.
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What does the price elasticity of demand for gasoline measure?
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The responsiveness of customer to changes in the price of gasoline.
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Which of the following is the best definition of a normal good?
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A good whose demand increases when income increases
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If the demand for a product increases as the result of a decline in income, it can be concluded that the
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product is an inferior good.
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A good is classified as inferior if
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consumers buy less when income rises.
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Which of the following is true about the marginal value of a commodity to a consumer?
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It is measured by the height of the individual consumer's demand curve.
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If the income elasticity of a good is positive, we can conclude that the good is
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a normal good.
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A good with a high income elasticity is generally considered to be
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a luxury good.
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Which of the following is the opportunity cost associated with the use of resources owned by a firm?
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Implicit costs.
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Marginal cost is defined as the increase in total cost resulting from an increase in
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one unit of output
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The short run is the time period which
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some of the firm's input decisions are constrained by previous commitments.
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Marginal cost is best defined as
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the amount added to total cost when one more unit of output is produced.
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The long run is a period of
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sufficient length to allow a firm to alter its plant size and capacity and all other factors of production.
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Costs that a firm remaining in business will still incur even if it halts current production are called
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fixed costs.
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The short run is a time period such that
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the existing firms in the market do not have sufficient time to increase the size of their existing plant or build a new factory.
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What is the marginal cost of a good?
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The cost of an additional unit.
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When total revenue minus total economic cost is greater than zero, the firm is
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earning higher than normal profits.
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Economic profit is
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total revenues minus total costs.
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If fixed cost is $130 when the firm produces 100 units, which of the following statements about fixed cost is true?
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Fixed cost is $130 when the firm produces 200 units.
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Which of the following is most likely to be true of economic and accounting profits?
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Economic profits are less than accounting profits.
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If most businesses in an industry are earning a 13 percent rate of return on their assets, but your firm is earning 23 percent, your rate of economic profit is
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10 percent.
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If a firm produces nothing, which of the following costs will be zero?
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variable cost
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What does an economist imply when he says a firm is earning zero economic profit?
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The firm is earning as high a rate of return now as could be earned in other industries.
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For a firm that wants to remain in business, which of the following costs could be avoided if it halted current production?
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Variable costs
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The law of diminishing marginal returns explains the general shape of the firm's
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short-run cost curves.
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Why will a firm eventually experience rising per-unto costs in the short run?
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The law of diminishing returns.
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For most firms, what is the major difference between accounting profit and economic profit?
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Accounting profit does not consider the opportunity coast of the firm's equity capital and, therefore, generally overstates economic profit.
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When do long-run diseconomies of scale exist over a range of output?
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When the long-run average cost curve rises.
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Why does a price ceiling set below an equilibrium price tend to cause persistent imbalances in the market?
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Because quantity demanded exceed quantity supplied but price cannot rise to remove the shortage.
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A price floor that sets the price of a good above market equilibrium will cause
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All of the above***
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A price ceiling that sets the price of a good below market equilibrium will cause which of the following?
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All of the above***
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Why does a price floor set above an equilibrium price tend to cause persistent imbalances in the market?
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Because quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded but price cannot fall to remove the surplus.
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A subsidy is defined as
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a payment to either the buyer or seller of a good or service, usually on a per-unit basis, when a good or service is purchased.
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What happens when a price floor is imposed above the equilibrium price of a good?
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A surplus of the good will develop.
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The term "deadweight loss" or "excess burden" is used to describe which of the following?
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The loss from the elimination of mutually beneficial exchanges that results from the imposition of a tax in a market.
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The deadweight loss (or excess burden) resulting from levying a tax on an economic activity is the
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loss of potential gains from trade from activities forgone because of the tax.
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The marginal tax rate is defined as
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The change in tax liability divided by the change in taxable income.
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The Laffer curve illustrates the relationship between
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tax rates and tax revenues.
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How would an increase in the price of paper influence the market for college textbooks?
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The supply of textbooks would decrease causing the price of textbooks to rise.
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Why does the imposition of a tax on a good create a deadweight?
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The tax reduces the quantity of exchanges between buyers and sellers.
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Which of the following statements about resource markets is correct?
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New licensing requirements that substantially lowered the number of plumbers would likely lead to an increase in the wage rate of plumbers.
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Which of the following characterizations about rent control is correct?
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Rent control is an example of a price ceiling and the minimum wage is an example of a price floor.
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Under rent contra, tenants can expect
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lower rent and lower quality housing.
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Suppose that the federal government levies a 50 cent excise tax on gasoline and that the demand for gasoline is highly inelastic while the supply is highly elastic. Under these circumstances, the burden of the tax
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will fall primarily on consumers.
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A tax on the buyers of coffee will result in which of the following?
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An increase in the price of coffee paid by buyers, a decrease in the net price of coffee received by seller, and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of coffee.
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A tax imposed on a market tends to lead to which of the following?
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A reduction in formal market activity because it lowers the return on such activity.
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What happens when tax is imposed on a good?
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The equilibrium quantity of the good always decreases.
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Which of the following will most likely occur when government price controls fix the price of a good above market equilibrium?
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A surplus of the good will develop.
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Externalities are fundamentally the result of which of the following?
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The lack of well-defined or enforce property rights.
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Students in a class are assigned to groups to work on a project. A grade will be given for each project, and everyone in the group will receive that grade. For the members of a particular group, the grade is a
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public good.
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In economics, a free rider is a term used for a person who
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receives the benefit of a good without contributing to its costs of production.
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The idea that an action should be undertaken if and only if the benefits exceed the costs is known as the concept of
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economic efficiency.
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Which of the following is true when a good is non excludable
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All of the above are true. ***
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When is a good considered non excludable?
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If it is impossible or very costly to exclude nonpaying customers from receiving the good.
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When economist say that an activity meets the criterion for economic efficiency, what do they mean?
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The benefits that result from the activity exceeds the costs.
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The spillover effects of action that affect the well-being of non consenting third parties are called
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externalities
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A free-rider problem exists when a good that has the following characteristic?
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Nonexcludable
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When is a good considered non rival-in-consumptioin?
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If many individuals can share in the consumption of the same unit of the good.
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When production of a good provides external benefits, there will be
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too few resources devoted to its production.
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suppose a firm generates external benefits. How could more efficient outcome be achieved?
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If the firm produced a larger output level.
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Which of the following about public goods is true?
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It is extremely difficult to limit benefits of a public good to only the people who pay for it.
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Which of the following is true when externalities are present?
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Competitive market outcomes may be inconsistent with ideal economic efficiency.
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Which of the following is true because of the free-rider problem?
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Competitive markets will tend to undersupply public goods.
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"Government failure" exists when political decision-makers choose actions that
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conflict with efficient allocation of resources.
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As a general rule, if pollution costs are external, firms will produce
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too much of a polluting good.
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Consider two goods--one that generates external benefits and another that generates external costs. A competitive market economy would tend to produce
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too little of the good that generates external benefits and too much of the good that generates external costs.
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When do markets fail to allocate resources efficiently?
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When property rights are poorly enforced or not well established.
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Suppose external costs are present in a market which results in the actual market price of $50 and market output of 800 units. How does this outcome compare to the efficient, ideal equilibrium?
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The efficient outcome would be less than 800 units.