Management Chapter 13 example #83097

25 November 2022
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64. Which of the following is the best way to manage virtual teams? A) When beginning with a virtual team, set the final deadline and reprimand any virtual team members who don't make the deadline. B) Because you don't have face-to-face contact, it is best to relay instructions via phone. C) Require each team member to keep their own personal record of the work that's been done as a team. D) Because someone on a global team is likely working around the clock, it's acceptable to call any team member at any time on a work issue. E) Meet in person regularly.
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E) Meet in person regularly.
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65. In managing virtual workers, a manager should A) give directions only by phone or in person. B) make sure the worker is keeping to a fixed schedule of hours. C) let employees work using their own expectations of how to do their jobs. D) meet regularly, face to face. E) initiate change quickly.
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D) meet regularly, face to face
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66. Which of the following promises to be a cornerstone of future management? A) increased productivity over teamwork B) teamwork C) off-shoring D) cost control over quality E) outsourcing
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B) teamwork
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67. The CEO of __________ said "you lead today by building teams and placing others first." A) Bank of America B) Sony C) Wal-Mart D) Proctor and Gamble E) General Electric
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E) General Electric
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68. Men's Wearhouse fired a salesman who wasn't sharing walk-in customer traffic, and total clothing sales volume among all salespeople (who work on commission) increased significantly. Which of the following workplace improvements does this example best suggest? A) increased speed B) reduced costs C) improved quality D) reduced destructive internal competition E) decreased productivity
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D) reduced destructive internal competition
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69. Teamwork A) improves quality and decreases productivity. B) improves workplace cohesiveness and reduces speed. C) improves speed and decreases costs. D) increases costs and improves cohesiveness. E) increases internal competition and increases speed.
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C) improves speed and decreases costs.
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70. Two or more freely interacting individuals who share collective norms, share collective goals, and have a common identity are called a A) group. B) collaborative unit. C) unit. D) self-managing work team. E) quality circle.
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A) group.
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71. A _______ is defined as a small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common purpose, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves accountable. A) group B) team C) unit D) self-managing work team E) quality circle
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B) team
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72. At one GE factory, teamwork resulted in a workforce that manufactured 20% more product using the same amount of raw materials than comparable GE workforces elsewhere. This is an example of A) increased speed B) reduced costs C) increased productivity D) improved workplace cohesiveness E) improved quality
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C) increased productivity
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73. Cisco Systems told executives they would gain or lose 30% of their bonuses based on how well they worked with peers and in 3 years had record profits. The cause of the profit increase is most likely an example of A) increased speed. B) reduced costs. C) moderate productivity. D) improved workplace cohesiveness. E) improved quality.
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D) improved workplace cohesiveness.
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74. A group that is created to do something productive for the organization and is headed by a leader is called a(n) A) loafing group B) normative group C) informal group D) network group E) formal group
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E) formal group
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75. Which of the following is true of informal groups? A) Informal groups support the plans of formal groups. B) Informal groups have formal leaders. C) Informal groups are primarily made to solve an organization problem. D) A temporary task force is an example of an informal group. E) Members of an informal group are assigned to it by the skills they possess.
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A) Informal groups support the plans of formal groups.
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76. A team composed of people from different departments who are pursuing a common objective is called a A) quality circle. B) problem-solving team. C) cross-functional team. D) virtual team. E) work force.
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C) cross-functional team.
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77. Knowledgeable workers who meet as a temporary team to solve a specific problem and then disband are called a A) quality circle. B) problem-solving team. C) cross-functional team. D) virtual team. E) work team.
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B) problem-solving team.
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78. A team that consists of members who interact by computer network to collaborate on projects is called a(n) A) quality circle. B) virtual team. C) problem-solving team. D) self-managed team. E) informal team.
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B) virtual team.
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79. A work team that is responsible for performing day-to-day operations is called a(n) A) production team. B) project team. C) product team. D) action team. E) advice team.
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A) production team.
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80. A stakeholder group who provides reactions to new curriculum proposals by a university faculty is an example of a(n) A) production team. B) project team. C) product team. D) action team. E) advice team.
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E) advice team.
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81. An airline cockpit crew is an example of a(n) A) production team. B) project team. C) product team. D) action team. E) advice team.
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D) action team.
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82. Which of the following is a characteristic of a quality circle? A) advice team B) assigned membership C) emerged from self-managed teams D) high empowerment E) part of each organizational group
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A) advice team
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83. Which of the following is a characteristic of a self-managed team? A) advice team B) voluntary membership C) team bonuses are used D) no empowerment E) outside the organizational structure
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C) team bonuses are used
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84. Who are typical members of quality circles? A) workers and supervisors B) supervisors and managers C) managers only D) outside vendors only E) customers and vendors
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A) workers and supervisors
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85. Self-managed teams are groups of workers who have been given __________ for their task domains. A) group incentives B) administrative oversight C) specific procedures D) workspaces that are separated from the rest of the organization E) no technology
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B) administrative oversight
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86. Administrative oversight given to self-managed teams can include A) planning. B) scheduling work. C) monitoring performance. D) staffing. E) all of the above.
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E) all of the above.
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87. When using a self-managed team, a manager should A) create the team within the existing structure. B) create lucrative individual bonuses. C) allow members to hire their own co-workers. D) provide training for supervisors and team members. E) provide elaborate retreats for team discussions.
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C) allow members to hire their own co-workers.
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88. During the forming stage, the leader should A) establish permanent control. B) empower team members. C) allow people to become acquainted. D) encourage disagreement. E) work through team conflicts.
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C) allow people to become acquainted.
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89. The question that individuals ask during the storming stage of group development is A) How do I fit in? B) What's next? C) How can I best perform my role? D) What do the others expect me to do? E) What's my role here?
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E) What's my role here?
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90. The question the group is asking during the forming stage of group development is A) Why are we here? B) What's next? C) Can we do the job properly? D) Who's in charge? E) Can we agree on roles and work as a team?
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A) Why are we here?
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91. The stage of group development at which power politics are most likely to result in open rebellion is the __________ stage. A) storming B) norming C) performing D) forming E) adjourning
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A) storming
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92. During the __________ stage, close relationships develop and unity and harmony emerge. A) storming B) norming C) performing D) forming E) adjourning
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B) norming
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93. Group cohesiveness is a by-product of the __________ stage. A) storming B) norming C) performing D) forming E) adjourning
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B) norming
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94. During the norming stage of group development, the leader should A) help the team identify group goals and values. B) encourage members to suggest ideas. C) help people get to know each other. D) empower the members. E) give a party.
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A) help the team identify group goals and values.
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95. __________ is (are) a "we feeling" that binds group members together. A) Groupthink B) Group cohesiveness C) Norms D) Roles E) Loafing
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B) Group cohesiveness
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96. In the performing stage, members A) prepare for disbandment. B) develop close relationships. C) test the leader's policies. D) hold back to see what will happen. E) concentrate on solving problems.
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E) concentrate on solving problems.
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97. During the performing stage, the group answers the question A) Can we agree on roles and work as a team? B) Why are we here? C) Why are we fighting? D) Can we do the job properly? E) Who's in charge?
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D) Can we do the job properly?
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98. During the adjourning stage, the leader should A) celebrate rituals. B) emphasize unity. C) help members work through conflicts. D) provide opportunities for people to get to know each other. E) allow members to work on tasks.
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A) celebrate rituals
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99. Groups that make it through storming generally do so because A) they develop groupthink. B) someone wins the political battle and dominates the group. C) someone challenges the group to resolve its political battles. D) the work gets done. E) the focus generally is on social loafing.
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C) someone challenges the group to resolve its political battles.
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100. The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance and punctuality is the __________ stage. A) norming B) storming C) forming D) adjourning E) performing
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A) norming
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101. Which of the following is a force of change outside of an organization? A) demographic characteristics B) employee problems C) employee turnover D) a change in management E) managers' behavior
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A) demographic characteristics
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102. Which of the following is a consideration in building a group into an effective team? A) norms B) groupthink C) performance goals and feedback D) size E) All of the above are considerations in building a group into an effective team.
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E) All of the above are considerations in building a group into an effective team.
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103. Which of the following is an advantage of smaller groups? A) less interaction; more work accomplished B) more formal team leaders C) higher morale D) more innovation E) the best members do more work than others
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C) higher morale
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104. Which of the following is a disadvantage of smaller groups? A) more formal team leaders B) work distribution given to all group members regardless of skill C) greater boldness D) more chances taken E) less knowledge
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E) less knowledge
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105. Which of the following is an advantage of larger groups? A) higher morale B) more autocratic leadership is acceptable C) can take advantage of division of labor D) greater boldness E) less social loafing
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C) can take advantage of division of labor
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106. Which of the following is a disadvantage of larger groups? A) lower morale B) more division of labor C) more interaction D) fewer resources E) fewer cliques
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A) lower morale
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107. __________ is the tendency of people to exert less effort when working in groups than when working alone. A) Gadflying B) Social loafing C) Procrastinating D) Social ignorance E) Social gadflying
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B) Social loafing
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108. A socially determined expectation of how an individual should behave in a specific position is called a A) role. B) norm. C) rule. D) job description. E) social fit
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A) role.
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109. A __________ role consists of behavior that concentrates on getting the team's work done. A) maintenance B) social C) relationship-oriented D) task E) compromising
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D) task
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110. Leila works during her meeting to pull together the ideas of her committee members into a coherent whole. Leila is performing a ___________ role. A) maintenance B) relationship-oriented C) task D) social E) harmonizing
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C) task
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111. Jacques says during his meeting with the task force, "Let's hear from those who don't agree with this choice." Jacques is performing a _________ role. A) maintenance B) task C) initiator D) coordinator E) orientor
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A) maintenance
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112. In her meeting with her workgroup, Yolanda thanks each person who contributes an idea and finds something good to say about it. Yolanda is acting in the ________ role. A) encourager B) standard setter C) harmonizer D) compromiser E) collaborator
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A) encourager
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113. Which of the following is a reason to enforce norms? A) to clarify role expectations B) to help the group survive C) to emphasize the group's important values D) to help individuals avoid embarrassing situations E) to do all of the above
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E) to do all of the above
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114. Nordstrom's department store chain emphasizes the great lengths to which it goes in customer service. Which of the following reasons to enforce norms is an example of this? A) to clarify role expectations B) to help the group survive C) to emphasize the group's important values D) to create cohesiveness E) to help individuals avoid embarrassing situations
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C) to emphasize the group's important values
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115. Which of the following is a way managers can enhance team cohesiveness? A) having a relatively large team B) assigning members randomly to teams C) giving every group member a vital "piece of the action" D) allowing off-the-job social events E) providing team members precise instructions for the task at hand
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D) allowing off-the-job social events
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116. The blind unwillingness of a cohesive group to consider alternatives is called A) paradigm paralysis B) social loafing C) groupthink D) dialectical inquiry E) devil's advocacy
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C) groupthink
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117. To prevent groupthink, a manager should A) reinforce how good the group is. B) never admit errors to outsiders. C) bring outsiders into the group regularly. D) encourage everyone to "get with the team." E) express high confidence in the group's decisions.
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C) bring outsiders into the group regularly.
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118. Negative conflict is sometimes called __________ conflict: A) functional B) aggressive C) apathetic D) dysfunctional E) intermittent
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D) dysfunctional
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119. Workgroups with too much conflict are characterized by A) dissatisfaction. B) political infighting. C) lack of teamwork. D) turnover. E) all of the above.
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E) all of the above.
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120. The relationship between the level of conflict and workgroup performance is A) the higher the conflict, the higher the performance. B) the higher the conflict, the lower the performance. C) conflict is unrelated to the level of performance. D) more conflict raises performance up to a point; then increased conflict lowers performance. E) less conflict raises performance up to a point; then increased conflict raises performance.
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D) more conflict raises performance up to a point; then increased conflict lowers performance.
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121. Which of the following is a source of conflict? A) inconsistent power and influence B) loose deadlines C) strict job boundaries D) too many resources E) consistent reward systems
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A) inconsistent power and influence
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122. Sheila works closely with Wayne on many projects, and they are often in conflict. Sheila starts new projects by creating careful plans and beginning immediately. Wayne believes in being open-minded to new ideas, and works frantically at the last minute. Their team conflict most likely stems from A) time pressure. B) communication failure. C) ambiguous jurisdictions. D) personality clashes. E) inconsistent goals.
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D) personality clashes.
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123. The conflict-handling style in which one person allows another to have his or her own way is called A) avoiding. B) collaborating. C) compromising. D) forcing. E) accommodating.
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E) accommodating
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124. _________ strives to devise solutions that benefit both parties. A) Avoiding B) Collaborating C) Compromising D) Forcing E) Accommodating
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B) Collaborating
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125. Michelle, a manager, tells Alejandro, her subordinate, that the work must be done according to procedure. Michelle is using the ________ conflict-handling style. A) avoiding B) collaborating C) compromising D) forcing E) accommodating
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D) forcing
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126. Rosalita sees that Khalil, her co-worker, is late again. She is angry because this causes her to handle his phone calls. When Khalil finally arrives, Rosalita decides to wait until she cools off. Rosalita is using the _______ conflict-handling style. A) avoiding B) collaborating C) compromising D) forcing E) accommodating
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A) avoiding
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127. ________ is appropriate for complex issues plagued by misunderstanding. A) Avoiding B) Collaborating C) Compromising D) Forcing E) Accommodating
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B) Collaborating
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128. Pat and Dale are both managers at ABC Company. Pat wants to decorate the office in light blue, and Dale wants to decorate in tan. This issue is important to Pat, but not to Dale. Dale should adopt a(n) ________ conflict-handling style. A) avoiding B) collaborating C) compromising D) forcing E) accommodating
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E) accommodating
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129. Which of the following conditions would suggest that constructive conflict should be stimulated? A) Managers want to achieve work objectives. B) The group adapts to change. C) Managers are in charge of self-managed teams. D) There is high employee turnover. E) There is a high level of energy and commitment.
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D) There is high employee turnover.
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130. __________ is designed to elicit different opinions without inciting people's personal feelings. A) Groupthink B) Programmed conflict C) Social loafing D) Storming E) Dysfunctional conflict
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B) Programmed conflict
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131. Role-playing criticism to test whether a proposal is workable is called A) devil's advocacy. B) groupthink. C) dialectical inquiry. D) storming. E) nonprogrammed conflict.
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A) devil's advocacy.