CNA Practice Questions Multiple Choice

3 September 2022
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question
People with acute illnesses are usually cared for in: A. home care B. hospitals C. long term care facilities D. physicians office
answer
B.
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The person who receives care in long-term care facility is the: A. client B. patient C.resident D. invalid
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C.
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The minimum number of hours of continuing education that the nurse assistant must have every year is: A. two B. four C. eight D. twelve
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D.
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The members of the healthcare team includes the: A. resident B.Licensed nurse C. nurse assistant D. All the above
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D.
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Needs on the lowest level of Maslowe's hierarchy include: A. love B. safety C. food D. self esteam
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C.
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According to Maslowe's theory: A. the needs at one level must be satisfied before needs at the next level become important. B. the need for self esteem is the most important of all. C. self actualization is the feeling of love from your family members D. all the above
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A.
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An example of an aging change in the cardiovascular system is: A. lung capacity increases due to muscular rigidly B. blood pressure increases C. the heart rate increases D. all the above
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B
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An example of aging change in the urinary system is: A. bladder capacity changes B. kidney function increases during the day C. fewer hormones are secreted D. all the above
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D.
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An example of an aging change in the digestive system is: A. movement of food through the stomach increases B. the stomach stretches, enabling it to hold a larger amount of food C. the gag reflexes is less effective D. all the above
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C.
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An example of an aging change in the musculoskeletal system is: A. the ability to feel pressure and temperature increases B. bones become more porous and break easily C. endurance increases D. all the above
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B.
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the outer layer of the skin is called: A. dermis B. epidermis C. subcutaneous layer D. external membrane
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B.
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Aging changes in the integumentry system include: A. the skin thins and becomes less elastic B. oil glands secrete less C. blood vessels that nourish the skin are more fragile D. all the above
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D.
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the prostate gland: A. is not affected by aging B. controls urination C. may enlarge and obstruct the urethra D. non of the above
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C.
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Medical asepsis is: A. a surgical technique B. practices used the prevent the spread of infection C. of concern only to a licensed personnel D. part of the chain of infection
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B.
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An infection that develops when a person is a resident in a health care is called a/an: A. facility infection B. acquired infection C. nosocomial infection D. delayed infection
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C.
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an example of common vehicle of transmission is: A. touching a contaminated object B. eating contaminated food C. inhaling droplets in the air D. all the above
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D.
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the six factors necessary for an infection to spread are called: A. mode of transmission B. reservoir of infection C. portal of exit D. chain of infection
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D.
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_________ must be used in the care of residents: A. standard precautions B. substance isolation C. skin precautions D. isolation precautions
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A.
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the most important measure health care workers used to prevent the spread of infection is: A. wearing a mask B. handwashing C. surgical asepsis D. wearing a gown when in close contact with the resident is anticipated
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B.
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Handwashing should be done for a minimum of: A. 3 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 60 seconds
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D.
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handwashing should be preformed: A. when coming on duty and when leaving at the end of the day B. after personal use of the toilet C. before applying and after removing gloves D. all the above
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D.
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Gloves should be worn when: A. combing a residents hair B. entering a residents room C.taking a blood pressure D. brushing a residents teeth
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D.
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safety is the responsibility of: A. the nursing assistant B. the housekeeping department C. the maintenance department D. all the above
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D.
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when placing the residents call signal, you should: A. place the call signal by the alert residents at only when they are in bed B. never place the call signal near a confused resident C. place the call signal near all residents at all times D. all the above
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C.
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if you find a resident who is ill or injured, you should: A. run and get your charge nurse B. stay with the resident and call for help C. go to the phone and call an ambulance D. leave the room and pretend you didn't see the resident
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B.
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if you find a resident has fallen on the floor next to the bed you should: A. help the resident back to bed B. go to the desk and fill out an incident report C. tell the resident she should have called for help before getting up D. non of the above
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D.
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you find the resident is having a seizure. you should do all the following except: A. place an object in the residents mouth so he/she doesn't swallow his/her tongue B. stay with the resident and call for help C. loosen tight and restrictive clothing D. move any object that could harm the resident
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A.
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a serious complication of hemorrhage is: A. bleeding B. swelling C. fractures D. shock
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D.
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the universal choking sign is: A. waving your hands in the air B. coughing and gagging C. one or both hands on throat D. non of the above
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C.
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the residents bill of rights guarantee residents treatment that is: A. private B. confidential C. dignified D. all the above
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D.
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when providing care to a resident: A. leave the door open so others will know your in the room B. closing the door is the only step necessary if the resident is the only one in the room C. close the door, privacy curtain, and window curtain D. you may leave the door open if the privacy curtain is pulled
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C.
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it is acceptable to discuss the residents condition: A. at the nurses station or another private area B. in the elevator C. in the cafeteria D. with your family at home
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A.
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A visitor asks you what is wrong with Mr. Jones, the resident in room 402. You may know that Mr. Jones was recently diagnosed with pneumonia related to AIDS. Your best response is: A. He has aids. For further information, consult administrations. B. He has pneumonia C. I'm sorry, but I cannot give you that information D. ask the doctor
answer
C.
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Mr. Jones is an alert 24 year old male resident who is unable to move his arms and legs. He was admitted to long term care facility for rehabilitation with you. You should: A. ask the resident what time he would like the bath B. give the resident choices as much as possible C. provide privacy when bathing and shaving the resident D. all the above
answer
D.
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You cared for Mr. Jones, a 92 year old confused resident on Monday. Mr. Jones speaks, but does not make sense. You were off on Tuesday, when you return to work on Wednesday, you are assigned to care for Mr. Jones again. When you remove her gown to bath her, you notice bruises on her upper arms. You should: A. say nothing, as the bruises must have occurred on your day off B. report the findings to the charge nurse C. ask Mrs. Jones why she has bruises D. tell the charge nurse that Mrs. Jones was neglected on your day off
answer
B.
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Mr. Jones is a 72 year old resident. You are assigned to care for him on the 3 p.m to 11 p.m shift. When you make your first round to check your residents you discover that Mr. Jones is in bed. His sheets are wrinkled and soaking wet. There are brown rings of urine on the bottom sheets indicating that Mr. Jones has not been changes in quite a while. There is food in the bed and the residents face and his hands are dirty. It appears as if someone forgot to care for this resident. This maybe an example of: A. neglect B. abuse C. false imprisonment D. all the above
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A.
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The signs of abuse may include: A. nausea and vomiting B. unexplained injuries C. fever D. all the above
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B.
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Negligence that results in harm to the resident: A. liable B. slander C. malpractice D. defamation
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C.
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Communication may be influenced by: A. sickness B. medication C. aging D. all the above
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D.
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When caring for a resident with vision or hearing loss, you should: A. be as quiet as possible when you are entering the room so the resident is not disturbed B. make as much noise as possible when you are in the room so the resident knows what you are doing C. announce yourself by name and title when entering the room D. non of the above
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C.
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When caring for residents with problems with speech of understanding, you should: A. explain the care you will be doing in medical terms B. choose short, simple words and use short sentences C. use sign language that the resident understands D. all the above
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B.
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When caring for a person who is mentally retarded, you should: A. treat the resident with courtesy and respect B. do not explain procedures C. never smile, because this is upsetting the resident D. all the above
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A.
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Objective means: A. something you think or feel B. a complaint of pain C. something you observe D. non of the above
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C.
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The medical record: A. is a legal document B. can be used in court C. contains factual information D. all of the above
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D.
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When using the 24 hour clock, 5:15 p.m is: A. 0515 hours B. 1515 hours C. 1715 hours D. 2015 hours
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C.
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The following is true about documenting in the residents chart: A. correction fluid should be used if you make a mistake B. factual information should be written on the chart C. charting is always done before care is given D. all the above
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B.
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The charge nurse writes on your assignment sheet, Mr. Jones, room 611-B/P at hs. You know this means: A. take the blood pressure at bedtime B. give Mr. Jones the bedpan at his side C. the resident should have a big portions for his supper D. Mr. Jones has a blood problem with his system
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A.
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Mr. Jones is to ambulate in the hallway TID. You know this means to walk the resident: A. every other day B. twice a day C. three times a day D. ten times a day
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C.
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Using your body correctly to do the job is good body: A. maintenance B. mechanisms C. muscles D. mechanics
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D.
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Your strongest muscles are in the: A. back B. abdomen C. legs D. shoulders
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C.
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Which of the following measures prevents pressure sores: A. turning the resident every 4 hours B. padding areas where bones and skin rub together C. using Fowler's positions D. all the above
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B.
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When moving and positioning residents, the nursing assistant should: A. use pillow props to maintain the position B. use good body mechanics C. avoid friction and shearing D. all the above
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D.
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Residents should be repositioned every: A. 2 hours B. 3 hours C. 4 hours D. shift
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A.
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A resident in the supine position is lying: A. face up B. face down C. on the abdomen with the head turned to the side D. on the side
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A.
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A resident in prone position is lying: A. on the back B. on the abdomen C. on the left side D. on the right side
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B.
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The charge nurse asks you to place Mr. Jones in the Fowler's position while his tube feeding is running. You know the head should be elevated: A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees
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C.
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When transferring residents from one place to another, you should: A. lock the breaks of the bed, wheelchair, or stretcher B. adjust the bed to the lowest possible high C. use transfer belt unless contraindicated D. all the above
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D.
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You are assigned to ambulate Mr. Jones using a gait belt. You are in the middle of the hall, and the resident starts to fall. You should: A. let go of the belt B. hold Mr. Jones up and call for help C. ease the resident down your leg D. tell the resident to grab the handrail
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C.
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When giving personal care to the resident, close the: A. door B. window curtain C. privacy curtain D. all the above
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D
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The following is true about the use of side rails: A. side rails should be up for all residents B. side rails should be kept down for all residents C. consult the care plan to see if side rails are indicated D. the resident always determines if the side rails are used
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C
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The overbed the table is used for: A. clean items, food and water B. holding soiled linen and toilet articles C. storing the bedpan and urinal D. medical procedures only
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A
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Which of the following is true about handling linen: A. clean and soiled linel are always carried away from your uniform B. extra linen in a room cannot be removed and used for another resident C. soiled linen is never placed on the floor D. all the above
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D
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Hygienic habits: A. develop over a period of time B. may be influenced by culture and religion C. are a private matter for most people D. all the above
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D
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ADL's are: A. all day learning B. activities of daily living C. all done lovingly D. activities during life
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B
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Incontinence is: A. loss of bowel and bladder control B. difficulty breathing C. inability to move or feel a body part D. not a medical condition
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A
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Always brush the residents teeth: A. back and fourth B. in a circular motion C. up and down D. with the brush vertical to the teeth
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B
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When bathing residents, always wash: A. vigorously in a circular motion B. from the dirtiest to the cleanest C. from clean to dirty D. the weakest side first
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C
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The temperature of bath water should be: A. 85 degrees Fahrenheit B. 95 degrees Fahrenheit C. 105 degrees Fahrenheit D. 115 degrees Fahrenheit
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C
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When assisting the female resident with perineal care, wash: A. from back to front B. in a back and forth motion C. in a circular motion D. from front to back
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D
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You are assigned to serve a full liquid diet to Mr. Jones. Which of the following would you expect to find on his tray: A. Vegetable soup B. pureed fish C. yogurt D. peach cobbler
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A
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Guidelines for passing trays to residents include: A. handwashing and identifying resident B. preparing the tray and providing adaptive devices C. checking the food on the tray to see if it is allowed D. all the above
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D
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When feeding a resident with a paralyzed side, direct the food: A. to the unaffected side of the mouth B. to the affected side of mouth C. in the corner of mouth D. all of the above
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A
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When a resident is receiving a tube feeding, the head of the bed should be: A. flat B. elevated 20 degrees C. elevated to 45 degrees D. tilted back
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C
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The normal daily fluid requirement for adults is: A. 100 to 1000ccs B. 500 to 2000ccs C. 2000 to 3000ccs D. 3500 to 4000ccs
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C
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A condition that results from inadequate fluid in the body is: A. hydration B. dehydration C. mechanical alteration D. non of the above
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B
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8 ounces is equivalent to: A. 24cc B. 80cc C. 240cc D. 800cc
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C
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The urinary system: A. removes solid wast from the digestive system B. removes waist from the blood and regulates water in the body C. recirculates wast products through the system D. non of the above
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B
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The average adult eliminates: A. 500cc of urine a per day B. 1000cc of urine a per day C. 1500cc of urine a per day D. 4500cc of urine a per day
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C
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Aging and disease may affect: A. bladder muscle tone B. the kidney's ability to filter efficiently C. the prostate gland in the male D. all the above
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D
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What of the following are signs or symptoms of urinary tract infection: A. pain or burning on urination B. voiding frequently in small amounts C. presence of blood, pus, or mucus in urine D. all the above
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D
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A container that the male resident uses for urination in bed is the: A. urinal B. regular bedpan C. fracture bedpan D. indwelling catheter
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A
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A catheter is used: A. for staff convenience B. to drain urine from bladder C. to obstruct from the bladder so urine cannot escape D. all of the above
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B
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When a resident is in bed, the catheter drainage bag should be positioned: A. above the level of the bladder B. on the bed frame above the floor C. on the side rail above the floor D. on the floor
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B
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When caring for a catheter, you should practice: A. standard precautions B. good handwashing C. medical asepsis D. all the above
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D
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You are assigned to measure urinary output on Mr. Jones, a resident with a indwelling catheter. To obtain an accurate measurement, you should: A. record the level of urine according to the markings on the catheter bag B. empty the catheter bag into the bedpan C. withdraw urine with a syringe D. empty the catheter bag into a graduate
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D
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Which of the following affect normal bowel elimination: A. immobility B. inadequate fluid intake C. change in diet D. all the above
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D
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Fecal material is: A. very irritating to the skin B. normally liquid C. excreted through the urethra D. all of the above
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A
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Restraints are: A.always used to prevent residents from wandering B. enablers C. Devices that restrict freedom and movement D. all the above
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C
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Restraints may be used: A. if the care provider feels they are needed B.to punish the resident C. with a physicians order D. for convenience when short of staff
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C
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Which of the following will guide you in the type of the restraint to use and time and how the restraint should be applied: A. the restraint B. the care plan C. the family D. the progress note
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B
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Restraints should be released: A. every 15 to 30 minutes B. every 2 hours C. every 4 hours D. every shift
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B
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Restraint alternatives are: A. devices that hold resident very securely B. devices to use instead of restraints C. always posture supports D. all of the above
answer
B
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The charge nurse assigns you to take vital signs on Mr. Jones. You know this means you will take the: A. TPR B. B/P C. TPR and B/P D.B/P and mm Hg
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C
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The aural temperature is taken: A. in the ear B. rectally C. under the arm D. in the mouth
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A
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The normal rectal temperature is: A. 97.6 B. 98.6 C. 99.6 D. 100.6
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C
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The normal oral temperature is: A. 97.6 B. 98.6 C. 99.6 D. 100.6
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B
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The normal axillary temperature is: A. 97.6 B. 98.6 C. 99.6 D. 100.6
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A
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The oral thermometer is marked with a: A. blue dot B. red dot C. green dot D. pink dot
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A
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The most commonly site for taking the pulse in adults is the: A. temporal artery B. apex of the heart C. brachial artery D. radial artery
answer
D
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When palpating the pulse, always use your: A. thumb B. stethoscope C. first three fingers D. third and fourth fingers
answer
C
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Which of the following pulse rates should be reported to the nurse: A. 60 B. 72 C. 96 D. 120
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D
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The normal respiratory rate for adults is: A. 14 to 20 B. 16 to 24 C.10 to 20 D. 20 to 30
answer
B
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Which artery is used for taking blood pressure: A.Carotid B. brachial C. radial D. femoral
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B
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Hypertension is blood pressure: A. under 140/90 B. over 160/98 C. under 100/60 D. over 90/60
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B
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Hypotension blood pressure is: A. under 140/90 B.over 140/90 C. under 90/60 D.over 90/60
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C
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The instrument used to take a blood pressure is the: A. sphygmomanometer B. thermometer C. areroid dial D. mercury pole
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A
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Oral temperatures should not be taken on residents: A. over the age of 80 B. with colostomies C. with seizure disorders D. who are alert
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C
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The normal pulse rate in adults is: A. 40-60 B. 20-80 C. 60-100 D. 70-90
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C
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Which of the following is the least accurate method of taking the residents temperature: A. rectal B. aural C. oral D. axillary
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D
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When performing range of motion exercises, you should: A. stretch all joints as far as you can B. move each joint as far as it will comfortably go C. ask the resident to tolerate discomfort D. non of the above
answer
B
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Causes of behavior problems may be: A. physical B. mental C. social D. all of the above
answer
D
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A cognitively impaired resident displays behavior problems. She yells and screams loudly when she is in bed. A good first step in managing this behavior is: A. applying a restraint B. asking the nurse to give the resident a tranquilizer C. attempting to learn the cause of the behavior D. isolating the resident
answer
C
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Causes of stress and agitation in cognitively impaired include: A. noise and confusion in the environment B. placing to many demands on the resident C. sensory loss D. all of the above
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D
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Sundowning is: A. increased agitation when the resident is put to bed B. restlessness early in the morning C. increased restlessness in the evening and night D. a form of combative behavior
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C
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Perceptual changes that occur in Alzheimer's disease include: A. inability to differentiate left from right B. loss of sense of smell C. deterioration of vision D. all of the above
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D
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The first stage of the grieving process, the resident shows signs of: A. Denial B. bargaining C. depression D. all of the above
answer
A
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Signs of approaching death include: A. cooling of the skin beginning with the lower extremities B. constricted pupils C. steady, slow pulse D. all of the above
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D
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When caring for a dying resident: A. be as quiet as possible and do not speak when providing care B. always explain procedures before doing them C. do not move resident in bed, as this is painful and disturbing D. all of the above
answer
B
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When a resident is dying, the room should be: A. dark and cold B. well lighted and ventilated C. dark and hot D. well lighted and cold
answer
B
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Licensure, certification, and accreditation surveys are done to: A. ensure that long term care facilities deliver quality care B. punish the long term care facility C. check for compliance with OSHA standards D. all of the above
answer
A
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Long term care surveys evaluate: A. quality of care B. quality of life C. residents rights D. all of the above
answer
D
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To prepare for a survey, you should: A. provide care in the manner in which you were taught B. fallow all facility polices and procedures C. be survey ready every day D. all of the above
answer
D
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Surveyors will monitor: A. resident touching B. infection control C. food service preparation D. all of the above
answer
D
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When providing care according to accepted standards of practice, you should: A. practice safety B.Answer emergency call signals for only your assigned residents C. knock on the door before entering the room of alert residents only D. all of the above
answer
A
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A resident drank four ounces of coffee with two teaspoons of cream added. What is the intake in cubic centimeters? A. 120cc B. 130cc C. 140cc D. 150cc
answer
B
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A resident weighs 110 pounds. What is her weight in kilograms: A. 45kg B. 50kg C. 60kg D.70kg
answer
B
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A resident is 66 inches tall. What is the measurement in feet and inches: A. 5'0 B. 5'4 C. 5'6 D. 6'6
answer
C
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A resident drank four ounces of juice and six ounces of water. How many cubic centimeters did the resident drink: A. 10cc B. 300cc C. 600cc D. 400cc
answer
B
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A resident weighs 74.39kg. what is the weight in pounds: A. 164 pounds B. 179 pounds C. 150 pounds D. 138 pounds
answer
A
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A resident is six feet tall. What is the measurement in inches: A. 66 B. 68 C. 70 D. 72
answer
D
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The role of the ombudsman: A. a resident advocate B. investigates complaints C. helps achieve agreement between parties D. all of the above
answer
D
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Hepatitis is: A. contagious disease of the liver B. skin infection caused by a mite C. chronic bacterial infection that affects the lungs D. infection which destroys the body's ability to fight infection
answer
A
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To maintain certification the CNA must; in addition to be offered at least 12 hours of inservice training per year: A. work as a healthcare provider at least one eight hour shift every twenty four months B. never have a verified complaint against them on the registry C. Be evaluated yearly and offered inservace education on their weaknesses D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Tuberculosis is: A. chronic bacterial infection that affects the lungs but may affect other parts of the body such as kidneys, bone and brain B. Spread through the air in droplets from sputum of persons with active disease C. symptoms of fever, loss of appetite, fatigue, productive cough and night sweats D. all of the above
answer
D
question
AIDS: A. results from infection with HIV B. destroys the bodies ability to fight infection C. is spread on the hands of healthcare workers D. both a and b
answer
D
question
MRSA: A. is a bacteria that no longer responds to antibiotics normally used to treat staph infections B. spread on the hands of healthcare workers C. can be prevented by following standard precautions D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Alzheimer's disease affects: A. memory B. judgment C. ability to think D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Cerebral vascular accident (CVA, Stroke) is: A. abnormally high blood pressure B.Mental retardation C. a decreased blood flow to the brain resulting in brain injury D. all of the above
answer
C
question
Congestive heart failure; a disorder which develops when the heart muscle is weekend, results in which of the following symptoms: A. difficult breathing B. coughing up mucus C. fluid in the lungs D. both a and c
answer
D
question
Symptoms of COPD include: A. shortness of breath B. coughing up mucus C. with emphysema-a barrel shaped chest D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Diabetes mellitus is: A. the uncontrolled division of mutated cells B. a disorder in which the pancreas does not produce enough insulin C. a narrowing of the coronary arteries D. non of the above
answer
B
question
Hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) symptoms include: A. thirst, increased urination, abdominal pain, cramps, nausea, vomiting, dim vision B. hunger, restlessness, weakness, dizziness C. confusion, slurred speech, rapid pulse D. both a and c
answer
D
question
Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) symptoms include: A. confusion, shallow breathing, sweaty B. cold or clammy skin C. blurred or double vision D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Minimum data sat (MDS) is used: A. to provide guidelines that help develop the comprehensive care plan B. is a form to identify the physical, mental, and psychological status of each resident C. provides guidelines responsible for monitoring the goals D. both a and b
answer
D
question
The comprehensive care plan includes all of the following except: A. short and long term goals B. disciplines responsible for monitoring the goals C. spiritual needs D. identification of the cause and nature of a residents needs
answer
C
question
Sundowning is: A. being overwhelmed by stimuli B. being aware of person, place and time C. hearing, smelling, and seeing things that are not there D. increased confusion and restlessness in late afternoon, evening, and night
answer
D
question
Osteoporosis is a disorder of: A. the bone lose calcium causing them to become spongy and brittle B. there are symptoms of back pain, gradual loss of height and stooped posture C. fractures are a major concern D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Cancer is: A. a disorder in which the pancreas does not produce enough insulin B. the uncontrolled division of mutated cells resulting in tumors C. a disorder in which malignant cell may spread to other parts of the body system D. both b and c
answer
D
question
Which of the following are not one of the seven signs of cancer: A. change in wart or mole: difficulty swallowing or indigestion B. change in bladder or bowel habits C. persistent cough or hoarseness; sore that does not heal D. nausea and vomitiong
answer
D
question
A fracture is a break in a bone resulting from a fall, accident or result of osteoporosis. If a resident were to fall and fracture a hip how would that hip appear: A. externally rotated and shortened B. broken and penetrating through the skin C. swollen, bruised and unable to move normally D. both a and c
answer
D
question
When performing a skin check on your resident you know to check both bony and friction areas. which areas are considered friction areas: A. ears, shoulder blades, elbow's, coccyx, hips, knees, ankles and heals B. Under breast and arms, between buttocks, groin, thighs, skin folds, contracted areas, and around tubing C. none of the above D. all of the above
answer
B
question
When caring for a resident with a urinary catheter what position should the drainage bag always be kept: A. above the level of the bladder B. below the level of the bladder C. at the level of the bladder D. all of the above
answer
B
question
When caring for a resident with a urinary catheter what position should the catheter tubing be placed while the resident is in bed: A. over the bag B. under the leg C. non of the above D. all of the above
answer
A
question
When tracking pulse and respiration's, how long do you take to count each of these: A. 15 seconds for each and then take the number times four B. 30 seconds for each and then take the number times two C. one full minute for both together D, one full minute for each
answer
D
question
Hospice care provides care for: A. Persons diagnosed with terminal illness B.has 6 months or less to live C. treatment for dying person to improve comfort and quality of life D. all of the above
answer
D
question
Where are most germs found on a person: A. under the fingernails B. on the palms C. on the fingertips D. all of the above
answer
A
question
When turning a resident in bed what position should the side rails be placed: A. down on the side you are working on and up on the side your resident will be facing when turned B. up on the sides you are working on and down on the side your resident will be facing when turned C. both side rails up D. both side rails down
answer
A
question
When undressing a dependent, which side will you undress first: A. the affected side B. the unaffected side C. whatever side is easiest to get off D. it does not matter
answer
B
question
What is true about making an occupied bed: A. you change all linen while the resident is in bed B. you change all the linen while resident is out of bed C. all of the above
answer
A
question
What is the role of the occupational therapist: A. works with fine motor skills to improve the residents use of hands for all activities and communication B. works with resident who has difficulty with speech, communication and swallowing C. plans and carries out appropriate activities for the resident D. provides routine and emergency dental care for the resident
answer
A
question
What are some causes of temporary cognitive impairment: A. stress, medication, and depression B. vitamin deficiency and thyroid disease C. alcohol, head trauma D. all of the above
answer
D
question
When using side rails on a bed you must have: A. the nurses permission B. a Dr.s order C. family request D. your common sense
answer
B
question
When should you answer a call light: A. only when it is your resident B. only if the resident is alert C. immediately D. all of the above
answer
C
question
Who is considered the primary caregiver: A. the nurse B. the doctor C. main person who takes care of another person D. the CNA
answer
C