Chap 6

28 August 2022
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question
31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order? A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.
answer
A
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32. Encoding can be defined as A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form. C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense. D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.
answer
C
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33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from being understood completely? A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment C) the avoidance of symbolic communication D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.
answer
D
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34. "Interpretation" can be defined as A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual. C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals. E) None of the above define "interpretation."
answer
C
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35. The presence of feedback can A) distort communication in negotiation. B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes. C) influence the offers that negotiators make. D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction. E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.
answer
E
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36. Define exonerating circumstances. A) Negotiators suggest that they had no choice in taking the positions they did. B) Negotiators explain their positions from a broader perspective, suggesting that while their current position may appear negative it derives from positive motives. C) Outcomes can be explained by changing the context. D) Negotiators who use multiple explanations are more likely to have better outcomes. E) None of the above can define exonerating circumstances.
answer
B
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37. Which of the following is not one of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats? A) the use of polarized language B) the conveyance of verbal immediacy C) the degree of lexical diversity D) the extent of low-power language style E) All of the above are elements of the five linguistic dimensions of making threats.
answer
D
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38. Gibbons, Bradac, and Busch suggest that threats can be made more credible and more compelling by using A) positively polarized descriptions of the other party. B) low immediacy. C) high intensity. D) low verbal diversity. E) None of the above can make threats more credible and compelling.
answer
C
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39. Which of the following is not one of the four biases that threaten e-mail negotiations? A) Temporal synchrony bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to behave as if they are in a synchronous situation when they are not (parties are not working on the same time frame). B) Sinister attribution bias occurs when one mistakenly assumes that another's behavior is caused by personality flaws, while overlooking the role of situational factors (dissimilarity between parties and shortage of rapport may exist among e-mail lead individuals to project sinister and deceitful motives onto the other party). C) Impasse in e-mail negotiations bias is the tendency for the negotiators to disclose personal information through e-mail about themselves and the issues with the other party (no mutual self-disclosure on the part of the out-group party). D) Burned bridge bias is the tendency for individuals to employ risky behavior during e-mail negotiations that they would not use during a face-to-face encounter (negotiators may be more willing to challenge the other party). E) Squeaky wheel bias is the tendency for e-mail negotiators to use a negative emotional style to achieve their goals (resort to intimidation, rude behavior, poor etiquette to achieve outcomes).
answer
C
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40. What are the most dominant contributors to breakdowns and failures in negotiation? A) failures and distortions in perception, meaning, and feedback B) failures and distortions in perception, feedback, and behaviors C) failures and distortions in perception, communication, and framing D) failures and distortions in perception, cognition, and communication. E) None of the above contribute to breakdowns and failures in negotiation.
answer
D
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41. Which of the following are types of manageable questions? A) close-out questions that force the other party into seeing things your way B) leading questions that point toward an answer C) impulse questions that occur "on the spur of the moment," without planning D) loaded questions that put the other party on the spot regardless of his/her answer E) None of the above are types of manageable questions.
answer
B
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42. Questions can be used to A) manage difficult or stalled negotiations. B) pry or lever a negotiation out of a breakdown or an apparent dead end. C) assist or force the other party to face up to the effects or consequences of their behaviors. D) collect and diagnose information. E) Questions can be used for all of the above.
answer
E
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43. In passive listening A) the receivers restate or paraphrase the sender's message in their own language. B) the receivers interject responses to keep communicators sending messages. C) the receiver provides no feedback to the sender about the accuracy or completeness of reception. D) senders may misinterpret acknowledgments as the receiver's agreement with their position, rather than that they are simply receiving the message. E) None of the above occurs in passive listening.
answer
C
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A) a greater emphasis on speaking than listening. B) responding to abstract rather than personal points. C) following the other rather than leading him or her into areas that the listener thinks should be explored. D) suggesting or questioning what the speaker should be thinking or feeling. E) All of the above are characteristics of reflective responding.
answer
C
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45. Research supports which conclusion about role reversal? A) Role reversal is effective in producing cognitive changes but not attitude changes. B) When parties' positions are fundamentally compatible with one another, role reversal is likely to produce better results. C) When parties' positions are fundamentally incompatible; role reversal may dull the perceptions of incompatibility. D) Role reversal leads to easier resolutions of conflict, particularly when accurate communication reveals a fundamental incompatibility in the positions of the two sides. E) All of the above conclusions are supported by research.
answer
B