Biology Exam 5

24 July 2022
4.7 (114 reviews)
40 test answers

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers (36)
question
1) Which is NOT a benefit of the understanding of evolution to understanding the field of biology? A) Understanding evolution helps us to understand molecules. B) Understanding evolution helps us to analyze ecosystems. C) Understanding evolution helps advance biotechnology and medicine. D) Understanding evolution helps us to understand why stars and galaxies change over time.
answer
D
question
2) The common house mouse species, Mus musculus, has the following taxonomic classification: Mus, Muridae, Rodentia, Mammalia, Chordata, Animalia, Eukarya. Which part of the name is the Family? A) Rodentia B) Chordata C) Muridae D) Animalia
answer
C
question
3) ________ believed that use (or lack of use) of body parts enables individual to develop certain traits that it passes on to its offspring while ________ believed that species are fixed forms that do not change over time. A) Aristotle... Lamarck B) Lamarck... Aristotle C) Darwin... Aristotle D) Lamarck... Darwin
answer
B
question
4) Natural selection can be defined as ________. A) the evolution of a population of organisms B) a process in which changes in gene frequencies result from evolution C) the production of more offspring than can survive in a given environment D) a process in which organisms with certain inherited traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with other traits
answer
D
question
5) Natural selection ________. A) results in evolutionary adaptation B) is a very rare phenomenon C) does not affect allelic frequencies D) prepares organisms for future changes in the environment
answer
A
question
6) The first basic idea of evolutionary adaptation can be traced back to ________. A) ancient Greeks about 2,500 years ago B) Aristotle C) Lamarck D) Darwin
answer
C
question
7) Which of the following statements about the voyage of the Beagle is TRUE? A) Its purpose was to identify the fastest route from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean. B) It lasted almost 2 years. C) It turned into a tremendous opportunity for Darwin to collect fossils, plants, and animals. D) It ended with the sinking of the ship off of the coast of Australia, almost 4 years into its journey.
answer
C
question
8) During his trip on the Beagle, Darwin found that ________. A) plants and animals living in temperate regions were most similar to each other, regardless of the continent on which they were found B) plants and animals living on a continent seemed more closely related to each other than to plants and animals living in similar regions on other continents C) fossils found on a particular continent were clearly not related to the plants and animals living on that continent today D) plants and animals were similar on every continent and in every type of region
answer
B
question
9) While on the Beagle, Darwin was influenced by a book by Charles Lyell that suggested that Earth was ________ and sculpted by geologic processes that ________ today. A) old... continue B) old... no longer occur C) young... continue D) young... no longer occur
answer
A
question
10) In The Origin of Species, Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was ________. A) artificial selection B) natural selection C) inheritance of acquired characteristics D) uniformitarianism
answer
B
question
11) Which of the following is a component of the fossil record? A) the distribution of murid rodents in Australia and Asia B) the similarity of the forelimbs of cats and bats C) molecular sequences D) bones of extinct whales
answer
D
question
12) The fossil record suggests that whales ________. A) are descended from one branch of marine reptiles B) are closely related to land mammals such as pigs, hippos, and cows C) are not closely related to dolphins and porpoises, despite a superficial similarity D) once had well-developed hind flippers
answer
B
question
13) Homology is evidence of ________. A) binomial classification B) artificial selection C) natural selection D) common ancestry
answer
D
question
14) Which of the following are homologous? A) the forelimb of a dog and the hindlimb of a cat B) the forelimb of a dog and the forelimb of a cat C) wings of a butterfly and wings of a sparrow D) the mouth of a mosquito and the beak of a hummingbird
answer
B
question
15) The similarity of the embryos of fish, frogs, birds, and humans is evidence of ________. A) analogy B) common ancestry C) genetic drift D) decreased genetic variation
answer
B
question
16) Natural selection generally results in ________. A) increased genetic variation B) a population that is better adapted to a future environment C) a population that is adapted to its current environment D) an increase in the size of a population
answer
C
question
17) Which of the following is NOT a requirement of natural selection? A) differential reproductive success B) overproduction of offspring C) genetic variation D) gene flow
answer
D
question
18) Which one of the following statements is TRUE? A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population. B) Natural selection works on nonheritable traits. C) Individuals evolve through natural selection. D) Individual organisms evolve structures that they need.
answer
A
question
19) Which of the following is a population? A) the termites infesting your house along with the microorganisms living in their guts B) all of the termites that have ever lived C) all organisms living in your house D) the termites infesting your house
answer
D
question
20) Which one of the following can create new alleles? A) natural selection B) sexual reproduction C) mutation D) genetic drift
answer
C
question
21) The total collection of alleles in a population at any one time makes up that population's ________. A) gene pool B) genotype C) heterozygote frequency D) allele frequency
answer
A
question
22) If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7 in a population with two alleles at a particular locus, what is the frequency of the alternate allele? A) 0.09 B) 0.21 C) 0.30 D) 0.42
answer
C
question
23) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does p2 represent? A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygotes for one allele
answer
D
question
24) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, what does 2pq represent? A) frequency of the dominant allele B) frequency of heterozygotes C) frequency of the recessive allele D) frequency of the homozygous dominants
answer
B
question
25) The presence of freckles is due to a dominant allele. Four percent of the individuals in a particular population lack freckles. Use the Hardy-Weinberg formula to calculate the percentage of individuals in this population who are homozygous dominant for freckles. A) 32% B) 4% C) 64% D) 80%
answer
C
question
26) The original source of genetic variation that serves as the raw material for natural selection is ________. A) mutation B) gene flow C) geographic isolation D) random fertilization
answer
A
question
27) Which of the following is a characteristic of a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) The population is subject to natural selection. B) The population is not evolving. C) Genetic drift is occurring. D) Gene flow in and out of the population occurs.
answer
B
question
28) Genetic drift is the result of ________. A) natural selection B) chance C) a large gene pool D) environmental variation
answer
B
question
29) Which one of the following will prevent significant genetic drift? A) Gene flow is absent. B) There is genetic variation. C) There is mutation. D) The population size is large.
answer
D
question
30) After surviving a bottleneck, a population recovers to the point where it consists of as many individuals as it did prior to the bottleneck. Which of the following statements is most likely to apply to this population? A) The postbottleneck population exhibits less genetic variation than the prebottleneck population. B) The bottleneck subjected the population to stabilizing selection. C) The postbottleneck population has less of a chance of going extinct than did the prebottleneck population. D) The postbottleneck population exhibits more genetic variation than the prebottleneck population.
answer
A
question
31) The founder effect differs from a population bottleneck in that the founder effect ________. A) requires a small population B) is a type of natural selection C) can occur only on an oceanic island colony D) involves the isolation of a small colony of individuals from a larger population
answer
D
question
32) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a particular human population with a higher incidence of polydactyly (extra fingers/toes) than the human population as a whole? A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) founder effect D) bottleneck effect
answer
C
question
33) Gene flow is accomplished by ________. A) migration B) sexual recombination C) mutation D) natural selection
answer
A
question
34) What does evolutionary fitness measure? A) physical health B) longevity C) relative reproductive success D) population size
answer
C
question
35) Which of the following is an example that results from directional selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
answer
B
question
36) Which of the following examples results from disruptive selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
answer
D
question
37) Which of the following is most likely to decrease genetic variation? A) directional selection B) mutation C) stabilizing selection D) diversifying selection
answer
C
question
38) Which of the following examples results from stabilizing selection? A) The birth weight at which newborn humans are most likely to survive and the average weight of newborn humans are about the same. B) There is an increase in antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. C) There is an increase in the number of different breeds of dog. D) Garter snakes with different coloration patterns behave differently when threatened.
answer
A
question
39) Which of the following is an example of sexual selection? A) Bacteria evolve resistance to antibiotics. B) Cheetahs experienced a population bottleneck. C) Peahens choose to mate with peacocks that have the most beautiful tails. D) Female butterflies have a higher survival rate than male butterflies.
answer
C
question
40) What leads paleontologists to hypothesize that whales evolved from wolf-like carnivores? A) molecular analysis of whale DNA B) observations of fossil teeth C) the presence of vestigial structures in both species D) mathematical analysis using the Hardy-Weinberg formula
answer
B