A&P II: Test 3

Lymphatic vessels recover about __________ of the fluid filtered by capillaries. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 50% E. 85%

Lymph is similar to blood plasma, but very low in __________. A. protein B. carbon dioxide C. metabolic waste D. electrolytes E. sodium and potassium

Which of the following forces does not help lymph to flow? A. Rhythmic contractions of lymphatic vessels B. The thoracic pump C. The skeletal muscle pump D. The lymphatic node pump E. Arterial pulsations squeezing lymphatic vessels

Which of the following is not an example of lymphatic tissue? A. Aggregated lymphoid nodule B. MALT C. Lymphatic nodules D. Macrophages E. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

Which of the following is common in the distal small intestine? A. Aggregated lymphoid nodule B. MALT C. Lymphatic nodules D. Macrophages E. Diffuse lymphatic tissue

Special lymphatic vessels, called lacteals, absorb dietary __________ that are not absorbed by the blood capillaries. A. water B. glucose C. vitamins D. amino acids E. lipids

__________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels, and they empty into the __________. A. Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts B. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries C. Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins D. Collecting ducts; subclavian veins E. Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries

Immune surveillance is a process in which __________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and diseased host cells. A. T lymphocytes (T cells) B. reticular cells C. dendritic cells D. macrophages E. natural killer (NK) cells

The __________ show(s) a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age. A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. pharyngeal tonsils E. appendix

The only lymphatic organ(s) with afferent lymphatic vessels is(are) the __________. A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. red bone marrow E. tonsils

Which of the following does(do) not belong to the second line of defense? A. The macrophage system B. Natural killer cells C. Inflammation D. The gastric juices E. Interferon and the complement system

__________ lacks the capacity to remember a pathogen or react differently to it in the future, whereas __________ utilizes memory cells to adapt to a given pathogen and ward it off more easily in the future. A. Innate immunity; cytotoxicity B. Adaptive immunity; innate immunity C. A natural killer cell; a macrophage D. Innate immunity; adaptive immunity

__________ are found especially in the mucous membrane, standing guard against parasites and allergens. A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Basophils D. Neutrophils E. Eosinophils

Complement fixation cannot lead to __________. A. enhanced inflammation B. opsonization C. endogenous pyrexia D. bacterial phagocytosis E. cytolysis

__________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected. A. Complement system globulins B. Interferons C. Granzymes D. Pyrogens E. Perforins

When an enemy cell is present, a(n) __________ secretes perforins, which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane. A. interferon B. interleukin C. natural killer cell D. antibody E. opsonization

A pyrogen is a substance that causes __________. A. inflammation B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. cytolysis E. fever

The first of a series of neutrophil behaviors in inflammation is __________. A. chemotaxis B. margination C. diapedesis D. phagocytosis E. opsonization

___________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO). A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Natural killer cells E. Suppressor T cells

Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called __________ and a vasodilator called __________. A. bradykinin; histamine B. selectin; prostaglandin C. histamine; heparin D. heparin; histamine E. prostaglandins; selectin

Which of these cellular agents does not participate in inflammation? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Macrophage C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils E. Endothelial cells

One group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK) cells is __________. A. selectins B. cytokines C. granzymes D. perforins E. interferons

__________ are antimicrobial proteins. A. Bradykinins B. Interferons C. Cytokines D. Kinins E. Prostaglandins

One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that __________. A. immunity starts in defined organs in the body B. immunity starts in specialized tissues in the body C. immunity is carried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system D. immunity is directed against a particular pathogen E. immunity is carried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system

Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial active C. natural passive D. artificial passive E. innate

Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________. A. allergens B. venoms C. cancer cells D. extracellular viruses E. toxins

T cells achieve immunocompetence in the __________. A. bone marrow B. bloodstream C. spleen D. thymus E. liver

The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates __________ immunity. A. artificial passive B. artificial active C. natural passive D. natural active

The majority of T cells of the naive lymphocyte pool wait for the encounter with foreign antigens in the __________. A. plasma B. thymus C. lymphatic tissues D. lymph E. blood plasma

Which of the following cannot act as antigen-presenting cells? A. Reticular cells B. Dendritic cells C. Macrophages D. B cells E. T cells

Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in the _____________. A. blood plasma B. lymph nodes C. thymus D. red bone marrow E. liver

Helper T (TH) cells do not __________. A. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells B. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells C. secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity D. secrete inflammatory chemicals E. secrete fever-producing chemicals

__________ participate in both innate immunity and the immune response. A. Memory T (TM) cells B. Regulatory T (TR) cells C. Natural killer (NK) cells D. Helper T (TH) cells E. Cytotoxic T (TC) cells

Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both __________. A. secrete interferons B. secrete granzymes and perforin C. participate in the immune response D. participate in innate immunity E. secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

Memory T cells can be up to __________ old. A. weeks B. days C. decades D. years E. months

Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) __________. A. hapten B. immunoglobulin C. natural killer cell D. major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein E. basophil

Which is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response? A. Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → differentiation → clonal selection → attack B. Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack C. Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → differentiation → attack D. Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → attack differentiation E. Antigen recognition → differentiation → antigen presentation → clonal selection → attack

Which class of immunoglobulin provides passive immunity to the newborn? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgM D. IgA E. IgG

Before B cells secrete antibodies, they differentiate into _________. A. stem cells B. antigen-presenting cells C. plasma cells D. T cells E. macrophages

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly __________. A. helper T cells B. B cells C. plasma cells D. cytotoxic T cells E. natural killer cells

Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones. A. self-immunoglobulins B. self-antibodies C. self-antigens D. self-interleukins E. self-complement proteins

Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? A. Control of pH B. Promotes the flow of lymph and venous blood C. Helps regulate blood pressure D. Assists in the synthesis of vasodilators E. Aids in defecation

Which of the following is caused by the chemical reactions of gases of the respiratory system? A. Regulation of blood pressure B. The synthesis of vasodilators C. Aids in defecation D. Regulation of pH

The upper respiratory tract extends from the nose through the _________. A. trachea B. pharynx C. larynx D. alveoli E. lungs

Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side? A. Left segmental bronchus B. Right segmental bronchus C. Right lobar bronchus D. Left main bronchus E. Right main bronchus

Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by all of the following except the _________. A. pharynx B. epiglottis C. oral cavity D. tongue E. lips

Which of the following cartilages is largest? A. Corniculate cartilage B. Epiglottic cartilage C. Thyroid cartilage D. Cricoid cartilage E. Arytenoid cartilage

Tom is in respiratory arrest due to an electrical shock. Why does a good samaritan have up to 4 or 5 minutes to begin CPR and save Tom's life? A. There is reserve oxygen in Tom's lungs. B. There is a venous reserve of oxygen in Tom's blood. C. The ambient PO2 can support life that long. D. The Haldane effect lasts up to 5 minutes. E. Tom's hypoxic drive will keep him alive for up to 5 minutes.

Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar air? A. An increase in membrane thickness B. An increase in alveolar surface area C. An increase in respiratory rate D. A decrease in membrane thickness E. A decrease in nitrogen solubility

The addition of CO2 to the blood generates __________ ions in the RBCs, which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen. A. sodium B. potassium C. nitrogen D. hydrogen E. chloride

Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to __________ oxygen molecules. A. 6 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Which of the following enzymes in an RBC breaks H2CO3 down to water and carbon dioxide? A. Hemoglobinase B. Carboxyhemoglobinase C. Carbonic anhydrase D. Bisphosphoglycerase E. Carbaminoreductase

Which of the following is the term for a deficiency of oxygen or the inability to utilize oxygen in a tissue? A. Apoxia B. Hypoxia C. Anoxia D. Cyanosis E. Eupnea

Which of the following is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli? A. Cor pulmonale B. Pulmonary hemosiderosis C. Emphysema D. Atelectasis E. Collapsed lung

Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract. A. squamous alveolar cells B. great alveolar cells C. the pleurae D. ciliated cells E. goblet cells

The blood transports more CO2 in the form of ___________ than in any other form. A. carbaminohemoglobin B. carboxyhemoglobin C. bicarbonate ions D. dissolved CO2 gas E. bisphosphocarbonate

Among its other purposes, how is the Valsalva maneuver used? A. To aid in defecation and urination B. As part of the procedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest C. To ventilate the lungs during eupnea D. To expel more than the usual tidal volume from the lungs E. To clear carbon monoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen

A byproduct of protein catabolism, __________ constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste. A. urea B. creatinine C. uric acid D. azotemia E. ammonia

Which organ system excretes nitrogenous wastes? A. The urinary system B. The cardiovascular system C. The integumentary system D. The digestive system E. The respiratory system

Which organ system does not excrete waste? A. The urinary system B. The cardiovascular system C. The integumentary system D. The digestive system E. The respiratory system

Which of the following is not a function of the kidneys? A. They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids. B. They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D. C. They help control blood pressure. D. They release waste into the bloodstream. E. They indirectly increase oxyhemoglobin.

The __________ is not an organ of the urinary system. A. urethra B. liver C. ureter D. urinary bladder E. kidney

The __________ innervation of the kidneys reduces urine production, while the function of its __________ innervation is unknown. A. sympathetic; parasympathetic B. parasympathetic; sympathetic C. central; peripheral D. peripheral; central E. enteric; somatic

The innermost connective tissue layer protecting the kidney and assisting in staving off infection is known as the __________. A. perirenal fat capsule B. renal fascia C. hilum D. fibrous capsule E. renal medulla

The transition from an afferent arteriole to an efferent arteriole occurs in the __________. A. glomerulus B. medulla C. cortical radiate veins D. peritubular capillaries E. vasa recta

Blood plasma is filtered in the __________. A. renal tubule B. renal corpuscle C. renal capsule D. renal column E. renal calyx

Which of the following is not composed of cuboidal epithelium? A. The thin segment of the nephron loop B. The thick segment of the nephron loop C. The collecting duct D. The proximal convoluted tubule E. The distal convoluted tubule

Which of the following are primarily responsible for maintaining the salinity gradient of the renal medulla? A. Cortical nephrons B. Juxtamedullary nephrons C. Collecting ducts D. Proximal convoluted tubules E. Distal convoluted tubules

In the nephron, the fluid that immediately precedes urine is known as __________. A. plasma B. glomerular filtrate C. tubular fluid D. renal filtrate E. medullary filtrate

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the __________. A. renal corpuscle B. proximal convoluted tubule C. distal convoluted tubule D. glomerular capillaries E. collecting duct

In a healthy kidney, very little __________ is filtered by the glomerulus. A. amino acids B. electrolytes C. glucose D. vitamins E. protein

Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate? A. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole B. A drop in oncotic pressure C. Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole D. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole E. An increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule

Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? A. Potassium B. Sodium chloride C. Hydrogen ions D. Urea E. Water

Total saturation of protein transporters for a given solute in the renal tubules would result in __________. A. reabsorption of all the solute B. a renal clearance of zero C. a net filtration pressure of 1.0 D. appearance of that solute in the urine E. absence of that solute from the urine

Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone? A. Decreased urine volume B. Decreased urine molarity C. Increased urine volume D. Increased urine salinity E. Increased urine acidity

Aldosterone acts on the __________. A. proximal convoluted tubule B. medullary portion of the collecting duct C. descending limb of the nephron loop D. distal convoluted tubule E. glomerulus

Which of the following is not a method by which natriuretic peptides reduce blood volume and pressure? A. Increasing glomerular filtration rate B. Inhibiting renin and aldosterone secretion C. Inhibiting the action of ADH on the kidney D. Inhibiting NaCl reabsorption by the collecting duct E. Preventing sodium loss in the urine

Hypocalcemia stimulates __________. A. a decrease in aldosterone production B. secretion of parathyroid hormone C. secretion of renin D. an increase in blood urea nitrogen E. vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles

Which renal structure is responsible for producing hypertonic urine by reabsorbing water while allowing metabolic wastes and NaCl to pass through? A. Glomerulus B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Distal convoluted tubule D. Collecting duct E. Nephron loop

Which of the following does not contribute to water conservation? A. The collecting duct B. The countercurrent multiplier C. The countercurrent exchange system D. Diuretics E. The length of the nephrons

Normal urine from a healthy person should not contain __________. A. creatinine B. urobilin C. glucose D. ammonia E. magnesium

The pigment responsible for the color of urine is called __________. A. monochrome B. urochrome C. cyanochrome D. multichrome E. pyuria

Prior to chemical tests for glycosuria, clinicians checked for sweetness of the urine as a sign of __________. A. diabetes insipidus B. acute glomerulonephritis C. diabetes mellitus D. renal calculus E. pyelitis

The __________ muscle is located in the urinary bladder. A. detrusor B. distractor C. pubococcygeus D. corpus spongiosum E. corpus cavernosum

Micturition is another term for __________. A. the production of nitrogenous wastes B. glomerular filtration C. the countercurrent multiplier process D. inflammation of the urinary bladder E. the elimination of urine

___________ are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial winning of the small intestine.

Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by all except __________.

What order does Irene get produce?

The filtration membrane includes all except ___________.

Four cardinals signs of inflammation.

Which brooches is 5cm long, slightly narrower and more horizontal than the other?

Which of the following cartilages is the largest?

If the fluid bond between the peristalsis and visceral pleura is broken, the lung collapses, it results in what condition?

Air moves out of the lung when the pressure inside the lungs is __________.

During quite breathing, inhalation is ________ and exhalation is _________.

What is the order of fluid moving through the nephron?

Hypoventilation leads to?

Boyle's law states that gas volume is ____________.

1. A physician orders Tylenol for a temperature greater than 101 degrees F. The patient's temperature is 100.4 F. Explain the rationale for not medicating a fever of 100.4 F and why Tylenol would be prescribed for temperatures greater than 101 F.?

3. Gary hyperventilates for several minutes before diving into a swimming pool. After he enters and begins swimming underwater he black out and almost drowns. What caused this to happen?

4. A person who travels to a mountainous region will experience difficulty in breathing even if he or she is in good athletic shape. Explain why a person can be breathing faster than normal yet still feel like he can't catch his breath. How may this fast breathing affect blood pH?

5. Renal failure patients constantly undergo dialysis. What is dialysis and why are they at risk of anemia and osteoporosis (thing about what renal failure and ALL the functions of the kidney). What medications or supplements could you give to prevent these problems?