MicroEcon Ch 9,10,12

5 January 2024
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question
Which of the following definitions is correct?
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Economic profit = accounting profit + implicit costs.
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TFC = Total Fixed Cost MC = Marginal Cost TVC = Total Variable Cost Q = Quantity of Output P = Product Price Refer to the information. Average total cost is:
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TFC + TVC / Q
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If MUa/Pa = 100/$35 = MUb/Pb = 300/? = MUc/Pc = 400/?, the prices of products B and C in consumer equilibrium:
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are $105 and $140 respectively.
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Refer to the diagram. At output level Q total fixed cost is:
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BCDE.
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The utility of a good or service:
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is the satisfaction or pleasure one gets from consuming it.
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Which of the following is most likely to be an implicit cost for Company X?
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Forgone rent from the building owned and used by Company X.
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Which of the following is correct?
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If marginal utility is diminishing and is a positive amount, total utility will increase.
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Which of the following is not a source of economies of scale?
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Inelastic resource supply curves.
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Economies of scale are indicated by:
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the declining segment of the long-run average total cost curve.
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In the figure, curves 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the:
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MC, ATC, AVC, and AFC curves respectively.
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In comparing the changes in TVC and TC associated with an additional unit of output, we find that:
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the changes in TC and TVC are equal.
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Refer to the data. The value for X is:
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15.
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The diagram suggests that:
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when marginal product lies above average product, average product is rising.
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A consumer is maximizing her utility with a particular money income when:
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MUa/Pa = MUb/Pb = MUc/Pc = . . . = MUn/Pn.
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The law of diminishing returns indicates that:
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as extra units of a variable resource are added to a fixed resource, marginal product will decline beyond some point.
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The basic characteristic of the short run is that:
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the firm does not have sufficient time to change the size of its plant.
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The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
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beyond some point, additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
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Ben is exhausting his money income consuming products A and B in such quantities that MUa/Pa = 5 and MUb/Pb = 8. Ben should purchase:
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more of B and less of A.
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The basic difference between the short run and the long run is that:
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at least one resource is fixed in the short run, while all resources are variable in the long run.
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In the diagram, curves 1, 2, and 3 represent the:
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marginal, average, and total product curves respectively.
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Economies and diseconomies of scale explain:
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why the firm's long-run average total cost curve is U-shaped.
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Accounting profits are typically:
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greater than economic profits because the former do not take implicit costs into account.
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Which of the following is most likely to be a variable cost?
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Fuel and power payments.
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Refer to the data. The average total cost of producing 3 units of output is:
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$16.
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Refer to the data. Diminishing marginal returns become evident with the addition of the:
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third worker.
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Fixed cost is:
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any cost that does not change when the firm changes its output.
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The theory of consumer behavior assumes that consumers attempt to maximize:
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total utility.
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Refer to the data. The marginal cost of producing the sixth unit of output is:
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$8.
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Refer to the data. The value for Y is:
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45.
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When diseconomies of scale occur:
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the long-run average total cost curve rises.
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A purely competitive firm should produce in the short run if its total revenue is sufficient to cover its:
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total variable costs.
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The marginal revenue curve of a purely competitive firm:
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is horizontal at the market price.
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Economists would describe the U.S. automobile industry as:
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an oligopoly.
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Refer to the data. At the profit-maximizing output, the firm's total revenue is:
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$48.
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In the short run, a purely competitive firm that seeks to maximize profit will produce:
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where total revenue exceeds total cost by the maximum amount.
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Refer to the diagram for a purely competitive producer. If product price is P3:
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economic profits will be zero.
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A firm finds that at its MR = MC output, its TC = $1,000, TVC = $800, TFC = $200, and total revenue is $900. This firm should:
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produce because the resulting loss is less than its TFC.
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Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller's demand curve?
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Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.
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Refer to the short-run data. Which of the following is correct?
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Any level of output between 100 and 440 units will yield an economic profit.
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An industry comprised of 40 firms, none of which has more than 3 percent of the total market for a differentiated product, is an example of:
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monopolistic competition.
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Refer to the data. The marginal revenue obtained from selling the third unit of output is:
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$2.
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A natural monopoly occurs when:
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long-run average costs decline continuously through the range of demand.
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Refer to the diagram for a pure monopolist. Monopoly output will be:
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f.
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Which of the following is characteristic of a pure monopolist's demand curve?
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It is the same as the market demand curve.
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The MR = MC rule:
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applies both to pure monopoly and pure competition.
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Refer to the diagrams. Firm A is a:
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pure competitor and Firm B is a pure monopoly.
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Refer to the two diagrams for individual firms. In Figure 2 the firm's demand and marginal revenue curves are represented by:
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lines B and C respectively.
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Pure monopoly refers to:
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a single firm producing a product for which there are no close substitutes.
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If a monopolist were to produce in the inelastic segment of its demand curve:
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the firm would not be maximizing profits.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of pure monopoly?
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Barriers to entry.
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Economic Profits are calculated by subtracting:
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explicit and implicit costs from total revenue.
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Normal Profit is:
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the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero.
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The basic characteristic of the short run is that:
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the firm does not have sufficient time to change the size of its plant.
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The law of diminishing returns indicates that:
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as extra units of a variable resource are added to a fixed resource, marginal product will decline beyond some point.
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Which of the following best expresses the law of diminishing returns?
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as successive amounts of one resource (labor) are added to fixed amounts of other resources (capital), beyond some point the resulting extra or marginal output will decline.
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Marginal Product:
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may initially increase, then diminish, and ultimately become negative.
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If a variable input is added to some fixed input, beyond some point the resulting extra output will decline. This statement describes:
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the law of diminishing returns.
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If in the short run a firm's total product is increasing, then its:
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marginal product could be either increasing or decreasing.
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The law of diminishing returns results in:
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a total product curve that eventually increases at a decreasing rate.
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When total product is increasing at an increasing rate, marginal product is:
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positive and increasing
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When total product is increasing at a decreasing rate, marginal product is:
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positive and decreasing.
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Fixed cost is:
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any cost that does not change when the firm changes its output.
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If you owned a small farm, which of the following would most likely be a fixed cost?
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Hail Insurance.
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Marginal cost is the:
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change in total cost that results from producing one more unit of output.
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For most producing firms:
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average total costs decline as output is carried to a certain level and then begin to rise.
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Other things equal, if the fixed costs of a firm were to increase by $100,000 per year, which of the following would happen?
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average fixed costs and average total costs would rise.
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If a firm decides to produce no output in the short run, its costs will be:
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its fixed costs.
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There is no relationship between MP and MC
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when MP is rising MC is falling and when MP is falling MC is rising.
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If a firm wanted to know how much it would save by producing one less unit of output, it would look to:
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MC
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Refer to the short-run production and cost data. In figure A curve (1) is:
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average product and curve (2) is marginal product.
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In the short run:
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TVC will increase for a time at a diminishing rate, but then beyond some point will increase at a an increasing rate.
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In the short run the Sure-Screen T-shirt Company is producing 500 units of output. Its average variable costs are $2.00 and its average fixed costs are $.50. The firm's total costs:
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are $1,250.
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Because the marginal product of a variable resource at the first increases and then decreases as the output of the firm is increased:
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total cost first increases at a decreasing rate and then increases at an increasing rate.
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Assume a firm closes down in the short run and produces no output. Under these conditions:
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TFC and TC are positive, but TVC is zero.
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The short-run average total cost curve is U-shaped because:
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of increasing and diminishing returns.
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The sunshine Corporation finds that its cost are $40 when it produces no output. Its total variable costs (TVC) change with output as shown in the accompanying table. Use this information to answer the following question. Refer to the info. The total cost of producing 3 units of output is:
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$105
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In the long run:
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all costs are variable costs.
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When diseconomies of scale occur:
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the long-run average total cost curve rises.
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When a firm does more of something, it gets better at it. This learning by-doing is:
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a source of economies of scale.
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The long-run average cost curve:
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indicates the lowest unit cost achievable when a firm has had sufficient time to alter plant size..
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The ABC Corporation decreases all of its inputs by 12 percent and finds that its output falls by only 8 percent. This means that initially it was producing:
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in the range of diseconomies of scale.
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The utility of a good or service:
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is the satisfaction or pleasure one gets from consuming it.
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The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:
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beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.
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The first Pepsi yields Craig 18 units of utility and the second yields him an additional 12 units of utility. His total utility from three pepsis is 38 units of utility. The marginal utility of the third Pepsi is:
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8 units of utility.
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Which of the following is correct?
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if marginal utility is diminishing and is a positive amount, total utility will increase.
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To maximize utility, a consumer should allocate money income so that the:
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marginal utility obtained from the last dollar spent on each product is the same.
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Ben is exhausting his money income consuming products A and B in such quantities that MU/Pa = 5 and MUb/Pb = 8. Ben should purchase:
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more of B and less of A.
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A consumer is maximizing her utility with a particular money income when:
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MUa/Pa = MU/Pb = MUc/Pc = . . . = MUn/Pn
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If a rational consumer is in equilibrium, which of the following conditions will hold true? MUa = MUb =MUc = . . . =MUn.
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the marginal utility of the last dollar spent on each good purchased will be the same.
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An increase in the price of product A will:
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decrease the marginal utility per dollar spent on A.
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What do the income effect, the substitution effect, and diminishing marginal utility have in common?
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They all help explain the down-sloping demand curve.
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A consumer's demand curve for a product is down sloping because:
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marginal utility diminishes as more of a product is consumed.
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Which of the following defines marginal utility?
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the additional satisfaction from consuming one more unit of a product.
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After eating four slices of pizza, you are offered a fifth slice for free. You turn down the fifth slice. Your refusal indicates that the:
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marginal utility is positive for the fourth slice and negative for the fifth slice.
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Refer to the above table. The consumption of which bar yields the greatest marginal utility?
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Third
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An industry comprised of a very large number of sellers producing a standardized product is:
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pure competition.
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A purely competitive seller is:
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a "price taker".
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Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of pure competition?
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considerable nonprice competition.
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The demand schedule or curve confronted by the individual, purely competitive firm is:
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perfectly elastic.
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If a firm in a purely competitive industry is confronted with an equilibrium price of $5, its marginal revenue:
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will also $5.
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For a purely competitive seller, price equals:
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average revenue. marginal revenue. total revenue divided by output.
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The demand curve in a purely competitive industry is _________, while the demand curve to a single firm in that industry is _________.
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down sloping, perfectly elastic.
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Marginal revenue is the:
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change in total revenue associated with the sale of one more unit of output.
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A competitive firm will maximize profits at that output at which:
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total revenue exceeds total cost by the greatest amount.
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Curve (4) in the diagram is a purely competitive firm's:
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total cost curve.
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Using the graph is question 61, to answer: The firm represented by the diagram would maximize its profit where:
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the vertical distance between curves (3) and (4) is the greatest.
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The MR = MC rule can be restated for a purely competitive seller as P = MC because:
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each additional unit of output adds exactly its price to total revenue.
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If a purely competitive firm shuts down in the short run:
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It will realize a loss equal to its total fixed costs.
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If a fimr is confronted with economic losses in the short run, it will decide wheather or no to produce by comparing:
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price and minimum average variable cost.
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In the short run, a purely competitive seller will shut down if:
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price is less than average variable cost at all outputs.
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Which of the following is correct?
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A purely competitive firm is a "price taker," while a monopolist is a "price maker".
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Which of the following is characteristic of a pure monopolist's demand curve?
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it is the same as the market demand curve.
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Because of the monopolist's demand curve is downslopping:
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price must be lowered to sell more output.
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One defining characteristic of pure monopoly is that:
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the monopolist produces a product with no close substitutes.
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Which phrase would be most characteristic of pure monopoly?
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sole seller
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Which of the following is a barrier to entry?
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Patents and licenses
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The demand curve confronting a non-discriminating pure monopolist is:
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the same as the industry's demand curve.
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Under pure monopoly, a profit-maximizing firm will produce:
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in the elastic range of its demand curve.
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Economists would describe the U.S. automobile industry as:
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an oligopoly.
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An industry comprised of 40 firms, none of which has more than 3 percent of the total market for a differentiated product, is an example of:
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monopolistic competition.
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An industry comprised of a small number of firms, each of which considers the potential reactions of its rivals in making price-output decisions is called:
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oligopoly.
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Which of the following statements applies to a purely competitive producer?
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It will not advertise its product.
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Monopolistic competition is characterized by a:
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large number of firms and low entry barriers.
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Under monopolistic competition, entry to the industry is:
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more difficult than under pure competition but not nearly as difficult as under pure monopoly.
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A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both
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large number of firms and low entry barriers.
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Under monopolistic competition, entry to the industry is:
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more difficult than under pure competition but not nearly as difficult as under pure monopoly.
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A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. It is correct to say that the competitive element results from:
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a relatively large number of firms and the monopolistic element from product differentiation.
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The term oligopoly indicates:
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a few firms producing either a differentiated or homogeneous product.
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In a oligopolistic market:
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products maybe standarized or differentiated.