FAID CH 11-16

________ skin always burns easily and never tans.

For aftercare of a second-degree sunburn, apply ________ in a thin layer.

Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ of an adult's body surface.

Burns that penetrate all the skin layers and into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:

When using a cravat bandage for an injured eye, cover ________ to prevent the injured eye from moving.

The extent of a burn can be estimated by considering the victim's hand size to be about ____ of his or her body surface.

Under what minimal circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim?

Which type of burn injury is characterized by an entrance wound and an exit wound?

Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim?

Which of the following is used as a dressing?

Do not try to neutralize a chemical process because the neutralization process may result in further damage caused by:

The redness of a sunburn is caused by ________.

Which type of electrical burn results when clothing or objects in direct contact with the skin are ignited by an electrical current?

Neglect and nonsupervision of children in the kitchen and bathtub are frequent causes of ________ burns in children.

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of an adult's body surface is involved if both legs are burned?

If you can safely reach the victim of electric shock caused by downed power lines, attempt to remove the wires:

A second-degree burn is also described as ________.

Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?

What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?

What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?

Flame, flash, and contact are terms to describe which type of injury?

The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions is:

Which of the following is placed directly over an open wound?

A second-degree burn that covers a minimum of ________ of the body surface area in children or elderly victims needs medical care.

An important fact related to chemical burns is:

Which of the following statements concerning bandages is correct?

Which bandage is most appropriate for use as a sling?

The first step in caring for a burn victim with a first-degree or small second-degree burn is to

Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ of an adult's body surface.

The three types of chemicals responsible for most chemical burns are:

Scald burns are the result of contact with

Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds?

A rough guide known as the ________ assigns a percentage value of total body surface area (BSA) to each part of an adult's body.

Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?

How long should cold be applied to the burned area?

Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer are considered:

An aloe vera gel or moisturizer may be applied to which type of burn?

Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ of a child's body surface.

Which type of chemical substance may be activated if flushed with water?

At what temperature does skin death and injury occur?

A(n) ________ burn is the result of an acid or alkali substance touching the skin.

A(n) ________ burn results when an area of the body is fully immersed in a hot liquid.

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to wrap an injury to the ankle or foot?

An estimated 80% of all burn injuries occur:

For small or scattered burns, use the quick ________ to assess the extent of the burn.

A(n) ________ burn occurs when a liquid spills, drops, or is thrown on a person.

Basic types of bandages include roller bandages, self-adhesive bandages, elastic bandages, triangular bandages, and ________.

The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:

Scald burns are the result of contact with:

Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly?

Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?

Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions and is a combination of a sterile dressing and a bandage?

When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.

_________ skin rarely burns and tans deeply.

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?

To remove a loose object from the eye:

Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of a:

A ________ is a break or a crack in the cranium.

A blow to the head strong enough to cause a contusion at the site of impact, as well as move the brain, causing it to hit the opposite side of the skull is a:

What is the name of a condition in which the brain does not receive any oxygen?

What should be done for the unresponsive victim's eyes?

An injury in which objects such as a bullet, knife, or other sharp object enters the brain is called a:

With proper treatment, the ________ of knocked-out teeth can be saved.

An injury in which shaking or strong rotation of the head causes a tearing injury is called a:

Which type of nosebleed is the most common?

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?

Which type of brain injury occurs when a blow to the head alters the function of the brain?

________ in the eye are the most frequent eye injury and can be painful.

Should you remove the helmet from a head-injury victim?

To treat a loosened tooth:

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?

How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?

If an eye is avulsed from its socket:

Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?

A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if it has been put back into its socket within ____ minutes after the injury.

When should you suspect a penetrating eye injury?

For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:

A spinal injury victim often describes the pain felt as:

What is the name of a condition in which the brain receives some but not enough oxygen?

If a nosebleed continues bleeding after pinching the nostrils, you should:

A spinal injury victim who is in water should be:

About ________ of head-injury victims also have a spinal injury.

A concussion is considered a ________.

To treat ultraviolet light burns to the eyes:

When flushing an eye burned by chemicals:

Most nosebleeds:

How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?

Which type of chemical penetrates the eye deeper and continues to burn longer?

In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should expect ________ bleeding.

An object caught between teeth is best removed by:

To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:

Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?

The first aider should place a victim with a scalp wound:

A type of nosebleed is:

What is the primary symptom of fractured ribs?

For an abdominal wound in which organs protrude, you should:

Closed abdominal injuries are also known as _________.

If the chest wall moves in a direction opposite to that of the rest of the chest wall during breathing, the victim is experiencing ________.

________ occur when the internal abdominal tissues are damaged but the skin is unbroken.

The condition where air in the chest cavity cannot exit, causing pressures that reduce heart and lung function, is called ________.

Signs and symptoms of flail chest include:

Pneumothorax and tension pneumothorax are examples of injuries that can happen to the ________.

If the victim has trouble breathing after you have sealed a sucking chest wound, you should:

Broken ribs usually occur along the side of the ________.

In a ________, the skin is not broken.

How do you care for a sucking chest wound?

Open abdominal injuries are also known as:

closed abdominal injuries are also known as

Paradoxical movement is a sign of ________.

What can be used to stabilize fractured ribs?

The condition where air fills a portion of the chest cavity is called ________.

Emergency care of a flail chest includes:

Signs and symptoms of flail chest include:

A fracture that commonly occurs in children whose bones are pliable is called:

A fracture in which the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces is called

The recommended treatment for muscle strains is:

A ________ occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range of motion.

A ________ results when the muscle is stretched beyond its normal range of motion.

A fracture that cuts across the bone at right angles to the bone's long axis is called:

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a muscle contusion?

Which joints are most often sprained?

Muscle contusions result from:

A fracture in which the bone is fragmented into more than two pieces is called:

If the fracture results in the bone protruding through the skin, it is considered a(n):

The two classifications for fractures are:

What injury results when a joint comes apart and stays apart?

A ________ occurs when a muscle goes into an uncontrolled spasm and contraction.

When the fracture line crosses the bone in a slanting direction, the fracture is called:

The M in CSM stands for:

The C in CSM stands for:

The S in CSM stands for:

When applying a compression bandage to an injured area, always wrap ________ the injury upward.

A "shoulder pointer" is a ________ about the shoulder.

What size elastic bandage is most appropriate for an injury of the elbow or arm?

When applying compression to an injured area, the first aider should use:

The mnemonic DOTS can help you remember:

In the mnemonic RICE, the C stands for:

When using the rule of thirds when examining an extremity

What size elastic bandage is most appropriate for an injury of the ankle, knee, or leg?

Fractures of the clavicle usually result from the victim falling with the _______ outstretched.

The first aider should consider the ________ of injury (COI) in evaluating the possibility of a fracture and its location.

During the first 48 to 72 hours after a bone, joint, or muscle injury, the victim should:

How long should the injured part be elevated?

The pain from a sprained finger will be ________ of the injured joint.

A ________ results when there are breaks in the bone.

If a splinter enters the skin under the nail and breaks off flush, it can be removed by:

An elastic bandage should be worn continuously for ________ hours.

An injury to the shoulder resulting in complete loss of function is ________ to be a dislocation than a fracture.

What size elastic bandage is most appropriate for an injury of the hand, wrist, or foot?

Shin splints is a term that describes pain in the ________ of the lower leg.

An injury in which a nail is partly or completely torn loose is known as a:

A victim with a dislocated shoulder will not be able to bring the dislocated arm:

A hip is usually fractured by:

Golfer's elbow is an inflammation of the ________ on the inside of the elbow.

All ________ fractures and dislocations should be considered serious and treated with extreme care.

The rule of thirds is helpful when checking the victim for ________ injuries.

If an ankle pulse is absent in a knee-dislocation victim, the first aider should make ____ attempt(s) to straighten the knee.

A hip fracture is a fracture of:

How long and how frequently should cold be applied to the injured area during the first 24 to 48 hours?

The victim with a dislocated shoulder will almost always hold the upper arm:

The deformity from a patella dislocation will be:

Most ankle sprains are caused by the ankle having turned or twisted:

Once the initial swelling has decreased, discontinue immobilization of the injured ankle and begin:

Repeated arm movement, as in many of the throwing sports (eg, baseball), often results in painful:

An ankle injury typically heals within ________.

Tennis elbow results from sharp, quick twists of the ________.

A lumplike deformity on the back of the wrist, along with pain, tenderness, and swelling, can indicate:

Within 3 to 7 days following an ankle injury, the victim should:

In the mnemonic RICE, the I stands for:

To use a contrast bath, submerge the ankle for ____ minute(s) in cold water, and then submerge for ____ minute(s) in warm water.

The painful pressure caused by accumulation of blood under a fingernail or toenail can be relieved by:

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of finger dislocation?

Stabilize the ________ with two boards that extend from the upper thigh to the bottom of the foot.

In what position should the hand be placed when splinting the wrist, hand, and fingers?

Always stabilize an injured knee in which position?

To further stabilize an ankle after treating with the RICE procedure:

An open triangular bandage can be used as a ________.

A shoulder dislocation is most comfortable for the victim when:

Fractures of the humerus should be stabilized using:

When splinting the forearm, keep the victim's thumb:

The ________ can help you decide what to splint.

Pelvis and hip fractures require:

The elbow must be splinted:

A fractured femur is best splinted with a:

When should a fracture be stabilized?

A device used to stabilize a fracture or a dislocation is called:

A folded triangular bandage can be used as a ________ in conjunction with a sling.

If the victim has a possible spine injury as well as an extremity injury:

When should you attempt to line up a fracture?

Before applying a splint, you should always:

For a fracture of the ________ third of a bone, stabilize the joints above and below the fracture.