Exam 3

The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels?

Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?

How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission?

In Linux, what command can be used for viewing and setting wireless interface parameters?

At what layer of the OSI model do the 802.11 standards vary?

What special signal is issued periodically from an AP and contains the network transmission rate and service set identifier (SSID), as well as other information needed for a computer to associate with the AP?

In IEEE terminology, a group of stations that share an access point are said to be part of which of the following?

What 802.11 frame type is involved in association and reassociation, including probe and beacon frames?

Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames?

How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented?

The use of multiple antennas on an access point to issue a signal to one or more receivers is enabled by what 802.11 innovation?

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?

How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices?

The wireless spectrum, as defined by the FCC, spans between which two frequencies?

The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions?

802.11ac Wave 2 devices can theoretically support how much maximum throughput?

A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points?

What type of device can be used to assess the quality of a wireless signal?

What scenario describes an evil twin attack?

Which Bluetooth power class allows for a maximum power output of 100 mW and a range of up to 100 m?

Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol?

When using RFID, what is an ARPT (Active Reader Passive Tag)?

Near-field communication devices send data at what fixed frequency?

What is the purpose of the Layer 2 LLC sublayer?

What optional protocol can be used in 802.11 to reserve the medium for one node's use?

In an 802.11 data frame, what is the maximum amount of data that can be sent?

Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?

You are troubleshooting a client's wireless networking issue. Which of the following will prevent the client from connecting to the network?

When troubleshooting wireless issues, what statement is accurate?

If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use?

Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of?

A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask?

A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?

An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?

Which of the following suggestions can help prevent VLAN hopping attacks on a network?

With VTP, where is the VLAN database stored?

What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?

In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?

On certain Cisco products, what command can be used to create and send helper messages that support several types of UDP traffic, including DHCP, TFTP, DNS, and TACACS+?

When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed?

How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?

On a Cisco switch, what would the security association identifier be for VLAN 13?

What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?

You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch?

Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host?

What is the maximum number of host IP addresses that can exist in a Class B network?

Which of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN configuration in which one router connects to a switch that supports multiple VLANs?

When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?

A subnet of 255.255.248.0 can be represented by what CIDR notation?

When using IPv6, what would a /64 network likely be assigned to?

What does the VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) do?

Which of the following statements regarding IPv6 subnetting is NOT accurate?

If the EUI-64 standard is used, what part of an IPv6 address is affected?

How many /64 subnets can be created within a /56 prefix?

What is NOT one of the ways in which networks are commonly segmented?

An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID?

Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?

You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal?

How many subnets can a /48 site prefix support?

By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address?

What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet?

What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection?

Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels?

In an ISDN connection, what amount of throughput did a single B channel provide?

What is the size of an ATM cell, including the header?

Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit?

Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?

What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?

The C-Band utilized by satellites consists of what frequency range?

In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?

Which statement regarding the use of cable modems is NOT accurate?

The DTE or endpoint device for a leased line is known as which device below?

On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined?

What type of virtual circuit allows connections to be established when parties need to transmit, then terminated after the transmission is complete?

Which of the following Layer 1 WAN technologies is not normally used as last mile service, but rather traverses multiple ISP networks, connecting these networks to the Internet backbone?

Where are MPLS labels placed within a frame?

What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for?

Which statement regarding the Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) technology is accurate?

The Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) utilizes what technology to create timeslots on a channel?

When using satellite services for your WAN connection, what statement is accurate?

Considering that multiple users occupy the same channel when using CDMA, how are various calls using this technology kept separate?

Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s?

With a SIP trunk, what is the only limitation on the number of calls that can run at any one time?

In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?

In a public switched telephone network, what portion of the network is known as the local loop?

Which type of DSL technology has equal download and upload speeds maxing out at around 2 Mbps?

When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used?

A fractional T1's bandwidth can be leased multiples of what data rate?

In a cellular network, where does each wireless base station connect to?

How many transponders are contained within a typical satellite?

Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers?

What cloud service model involves providing applications through an online user interface, providing for compatibility with a multitude of different operating systems and devices?

What type of scenario would be best served by using a Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model?

When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?

The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?

What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?

At what layer of the OSI model does the IPsec encryption protocol operate?

The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?

When using a site-to-site VPN, what type of device sits at the edge of the LAN and establishes the connection between sites?

Amazon and Rackspace both utilize what virtualization software below to create their cloud environments?

What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?

VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor?

Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?

When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?

By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?

Which statement regarding the IKEv2 tunneling protocol is accurate?

The use of certificate authorities to associate public keys with certain users is known by what term?

What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?

A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?

Which of the following virtualization products is an example of a bare-metal hypervisor?

In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data?

What term is used to describe a space that is rented at a data center facility by a service provider?

Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate?

Why is the telnet utility a poor choice for remote access to a device?

What statement regarding the SSH (Secure Shell) collection of protocols is accurate?

In order to generate a public and private key for use with SSH, what command line utility should you use?

Regarding VNC (Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection), what statement is accurate?

Which file transfer protocol has no authentication or security for transferring files, uses UDP, and requires very little memory to use?

What special enterprise VPN supported by Cisco devices creates VPN tunnels between branch locations as needed rather than requiring constant, static tunnels?

Which of the following is NOT a task that a VPN concentrator is responsible for?