Chapter 13 Review

8 September 2022
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68 test answers

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question
Urinalysis
answer
81000
question
Suture of a recent wound on the eyelid
answer
67930
question
Thoracentesis, puncture of pleural cavity for aspiration, initial or subsequent
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32000
question
Breast reduction
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19318
question
Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal, with catheterization
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69400
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Chest x-ray examination, single view, frontal
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71010
question
Pelvimetry, with or without placental localization
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74710
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
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92950
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Biopsy of external ear
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69100
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Serum folic acid
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82746
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Triglycerides
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84478
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Febrile agglutinins, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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86000
question
Liver function study with hepatobiliary agents, with serial images
answer
78220
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New patient office visit, comprehensive history, examination, and moderate-complexity decision making
answer
99204
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Established patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
answer
99212
question
New patient office visit, problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
answer
99201
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Hospital discharge day management, 45 minutes
answer
99239
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New patient, initial inpatient consultation
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99251
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New patient office visit, comprehensive history and examination, high-complexity decision making
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99205
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Initial hospital observation care, new patient
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99218
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Initial pediatric inpatient critical care
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99293
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Subsequent nursing facility care, comprehensive interval history and examination, high-complexity medical decisions
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99310
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New patient office visit, expanded problem-focused history and examination, straightforward decision making
answer
99202
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Initial nursing facility care, detailed or comprehensive history or examination, straightforward or low-complexity decision making
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99304
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Established patient, home patient, problem-focused interval history and examination, straightforward medical decision making
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99347
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Basic metabolic panel
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80048
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Cyanide
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82600
question
Psychoanalysis
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90845
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Acne surgery, removal of multiple milia, comedones, cysts, pustules
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10040
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Total splenectomy
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38100
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Which of the following codes can be used to help measure performance and outcomes?
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Category II codes
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An eponym will be used in which of the following CPT divisions?
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Alphabetic index
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Which of the following sections uses the code range between 70000 and 79999?
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Radiology section
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Codes with a plus sign are additional codes that must be used with which of the following?
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Category I codes
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Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following?
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All of the above Correct A. Encounter form B. Progress notes C. Pathology report D. Radiology report
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When searching the alphabetic index, "humerus" is an example of which of the following?
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Organ or anatomic site
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Which of the following levels of history includes a review of the systems that relate to the chief complaint?
answer
Expanded problem-focused history
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One time unit in anesthesia coding typically equals which of the following?
answer
15 minutes
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When wounds of more than one classification are repaired, list the less complicated repair as the primary procedure and the more complicated repair as the secondary procedure. When multiple wounds are repaired, add together the lengths of those in the same classification.
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The first statement is false; the second is true.
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Which of the following is a method of closed treatment of fractures?
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Both A and B Correct A. Without manipulation and/or traction B.With manipulation and/or traction
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Qualitative and quantitative codes for drug testing are found in which of the following CPT sections?
answer
Pathology
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Which of the following HCPCS codes range from A4000 to A8999?
answer
Both B and C Correct B. Medical supplies C. Surgical supplies
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Which of the following modifiers indicates a professional component and is used when a separate technician performs the service but the provider reviews the report and makes an accurate diagnosis?
answer
-26
question
Which of the following codes is assigned to an urgent care facility as the place of service?
answer
20
question
Physical status modifier P4 is assigned to which of the following?
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Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
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A new or experimental procedure or service code is a category __________ code.
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III
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The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient __________.
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status
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A(n) __________ patient is one who is having his or her first encounter with the physician.
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new
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__________ codes are separated and reported individually.
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Unbundled
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A(n) __________ patient has seen the physician within the past 3 years.
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established
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__________ are procedures or treatments named for a person.
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Eponyms
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Codes that are grouped together and paid as one service or procedure are known as __________.
answer
bundled
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CPT-4 codes have __________ digits.
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five
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Special symbols used to provide additional information about certain codes are called __________; seven are used in CPT-4 coding.
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conventions
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Some physicians must __________ patient care among several different providers.
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coordinate
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__________ and management codes are used for physician's office visits.
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Evaluation
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The dollar value of each basic unit value used in anesthesia coding is called the __________.
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conversion factor
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The __________ indicates that modifying terms and descriptions follow.
answer
semicolon
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A(n) __________ code indicates that additional or supplemental procedures carried out in addition to the primary procedure are needed.
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add-on
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The CPT is divided into eight sections.
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False
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Revised codes are not highlighted in the CPT manual.
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False
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Subcategories are the lowest level of code description and specificity.
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True
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It is acceptable to code from the Alphabetic Index.
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False
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A detailed history takes the shortest amount of time.
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False
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Anesthesia coding is based on a billing formula.
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True
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The place of service never changes for physician billing.
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False
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Downcoding can increase reimbursements.
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False
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Downcoding and upcoding are illegal practices, and medical assistants can be prosecuted for either practice.
answer
True