Mastering Genetics Problem Set #2

25 July 2022
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question
True or false? The genetic code is degenerate, meaning that a codon can specify more than one amino acid.
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False The degeneracy of the genetic code means that an amino acid may be coded for by more than one codon. However, a single codon can only ever specify one amino acid.
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A DNA sequence produces a mutant protein in which several amino acids in the middle of the protein differ from the normal protein. What kind of mutation could have occurred?
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An addition and a deletion mutation A single addition or deletion would change the reading frame of the protein, but if another mutation occurred to cancel the effects of the first mutation, only those amino acids between the mutations would change.
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Which of the following statements about eukaryotic transcription is false? The transcripts produced contain both exons and introns. Eukaryotic promoter regions contain a TATA box and a CAAT box. A polycistronic mRNA may be transcribed if the gene products are used in the same pathway or needed at the same time. Transcription initiation occurs when RNA polymerase binds to a complex of transcription factors at the TATA box.
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"A polycistronic mRNA may be transcribed if the gene products are used in the same pathway or needed at the same time" is false. This statement is false. Polycistronic mRNAs are produced only in prokaryotes. In eukaryotes, a single gene is transcribed at a time.
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The genetic code is said to be triplet, meaning that there ___.
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are three bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid
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When scientists were attempting to determine the structure of the genetic code, Crick and coworkers found that when three base additions or three base deletions occurred in a single gene, the wild-type phenotype was sometimes restored. These data supported the hypothesis that ___.
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the code is triplet
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What is the initiator triplet in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Which amino acid does this triplet recruit?
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AUG; methionine
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When examining the genetic code, it is apparent that ___.
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there can be more than one codon for a particular amino acid
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Introns are known to contain termination codons (UAA, UGA, or UAG), yet these codons do not interrupt the coding of a particular protein. Why?
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Introns are removed from mRNA before translation.
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How many different codons code for amino acids?
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61 There are 61 codons that code for amino acids and 3 stop codons that do not code for an amino acid.
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RNA synthesis from a DNA template is called ___.
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transcription Transcription is initiated when the cell signals for the expression of a particular gene and involves the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
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The relationship between a gene and a messenger RNA is that ___.
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mRNAs are made from genes
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What are two main types of posttranscriptional modifications that take place in the mRNA of eukaryotes?
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The addition of a 7-mG cap at the 5' end of the transcript and the addition of a poly-A sequence at the 3' end of the message.
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Which of the following contains the three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes?
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5'-capping, 3'-poly(A) tail addition, splicing
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True or false? A 3' poly-A tail and a 5'-cap are common components of prokaryotic RNAs.
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False
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An intron is a section of ___.
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RNA that is removed during RNA processing
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If the template strand is 5' GGCTCA 3' and the coding strand is 3' CCGAGT 5', what is the RNA strand 5' to 3'?
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UGAGCC 1. The RNA polymerase reads the sequence of DNA bases from only one of the two strands of DNA: the template strand. 2. The RNA polymerase reads the code from the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction and thus produces the mRNA strand in the 5' to 3' direction. 3. In RNA, the base uracil (U) replaces the DNA base thymine (T). Thus the base-pairing rules in transcription are A→U, T→A, C→G, and G→C, where the first base is the coding base in the template strand of the DNA and the second base is the base that is added to the growing mRNA strand.
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During transcription in eukaryotes, a type of RNA polymerase called RNA polymerase II moves along the template strand of the DNA in the 3'→5' direction. However, for any given gene, either strand of the double-stranded DNA may function as the template strand. Which of the following initially determines which DNA strand is the template strand, and therefore in which direction RNA polymerase II moves along the DNA?
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the specific sequence of bases along the DNA strands In eukaryotes, binding of RNA polymerase II to DNA involves several other proteins known as transcription factors. Many of these transcription factors bind to the DNA in the promoter region (shown below in green), located at the 3' end of the sequence on the template strand. Although some transcription factors bind to both strands of the DNA, others bind specifically to only one of the strands. Transcription factors do not bind randomly to the DNA. Information about where each transcription factor binds originates in the base sequence to which each transcription factor binds. The positioning of the transcription factors in the promoter region determines how the RNA polymerase II binds to the DNA and in which direction transcription will occur.
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After transcription begins, several steps must be completed before the fully processed mRNA is ready to be used as a template for protein synthesis on the ribosomes. Which three statements correctly describe the processing that takes place before a mature mRNA exits the nucleus?
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Noncoding sequences called introns are spliced out by molecular complexes called spliceosomes. A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA. A poly-A tail (50-250 adenine nucleotides) is added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA.
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Which of the following lists steps of mRNA production in eukaryotes in the correct order?
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Transcription, 5' cap addition, addition of poly-A tail, exon splicing, passage through nuclear membrane
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Which of the following is characteristic of transcription in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes?
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Exon splicing Correct. Introns must be removed from eukaryotic pre-mRNA; prokaryotic mRNA does not contain introns.
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Which of the following best describe(s) the function of the 5' mRNA cap?
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It provides a site for ribosome binding in the cytoplasm. To protect the transcript from degradation. Correct. The 5' cap is essential for recognition of the mRNA by ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of RNA splicing in Eukaryotes?
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Exon/intron boundaries are typically characterized by a 5' GU splice junction and a 3' AG splice junction. Correct. These splice junctions are recognized by the spliceosome so that accurate removal of introns is possible.
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A snRNP is best described as ___.
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small RNAs associated with protein complexes in the nucleus Correct. snRNPs recognize the 5' and 3' splice junctions and the branch point sequence, excise the intron, and splice together the exons.
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Which of the following is most likely attributable to a base substitution at a 5' splice junction?
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A longer than usual final transcript Correct. Such a mutation could block intron removal, resulting in a longer than usual transcript.
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All EXCEPT which of the following are involved in the process of tRNA "charging"? rRNA. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase. ATP. Amino acids.
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rRNA Ribosomal RNA and ribosomes form the site of protein translation. Transfer RNAs work to bring amino acids to the ribosome. After a tRNA contributes its amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain, it must be "recharged" with a new amino acid. This is done independently of rRNA.
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Which region of a tRNA molecule binds to amino acids?
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3′ end The 3′ end of a tRNA molecule contains the amino acid binding site.
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Which of the following statements best describes the function of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase?
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It attaches a specific amino acid to a tRNA molecule. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase catalyzes the charging reaction that links a specific amino acid to a tRNA molecule.
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True or false? Each aminoacyl tRNA synthetase is specific for one amino acid and a small number of tRNAs.
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True Each aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme recognizes only one amino acid, but each enzyme can often recognize several tRNAs because there is usually more than one codon for each amino acid.
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When a peptide bond is formed between two amino acids, one is attached to the tRNA occupying the P site and the other ___.
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is attached to the tRNA occupying the A site
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Which of the following statements concerning peptide bond formation is correct?
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It is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase.
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Amino acids are attached to tRNA by enzymes called ___.
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aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
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___ of translation always happens at the start codon of the mRNA.
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Initiation
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The RNA that has amino acid attached to it, and that binds to the codon on the mRNA, is called a ___.
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tRNA
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___ of translation happens when the ribosome hits a stop codon on the mRNA.
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Termination
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The process, performed by the ribosome, of reading mRNA and synthesizing a protein is called ___.
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translation
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In prokaryotes, the methionine that initiates the formation of a polypeptide chain differs from subsequently added methionines in that ___.
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a formyl group is attached to the initiating methionine This modification is not present on methionine residues added during elongation.
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Translation is directly dependent on all of the following associations except ___.
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complementary base pairing between mRNA and DNA Transcription, not translation, is dependent on this association.
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Which of the following best describes the first step in the formation of the translation initiation complex?
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The small ribosomal subunit binds to an mRNA sequence near the 5' end of the transcript
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Formation of ribosomal subunits is in the ___.
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nucleolus
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Attachment of an amino acid to tRNA is in the ___.
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cytoplasm
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Translation of cytoplasmic proteins is on the ___.
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cytoplasmic ribosomes
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Transcription and RNA processing is in the ___.
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nucleus
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Translation of secreted proteins is on ___.
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the ribosomes on the rough ER
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True or false? Under a system of negative control, genetic expression occurs unless some form of regulator shuts off such expression.
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True
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Which of the following mutations could lead to constitutive expression of the genes of the lac operon?
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A mutation in the operator sequence Correct. Such a mutation could prevent binding of the repressor, allowing expression under all conditions.
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Which of the following best describes the biological role of the lac operon?
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It ensures that a cell dedicates resources to the production of enzymes involved in lactose metabolism only when lactose is available in the environment. Correct. The cell expends energy to produce the proteins necessary for lactose metabolism only when lactose is present.
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True or false? The placement of the operator sequence between the promoter and the structural genes is critical to the proper function of the lac operon.
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True Correct. When the repressor binds to the operator, RNA polymerase cannot transcribe the structural genes.
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True or false? Lactose is an inducer of the lac operon.
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True Lactose indirectly induces or stimulates the transcription of genes involved in its metabolism.
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What would be the effect of a mutation in the lacI gene that prevented the repressor from binding to lactose?
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The lac Z, Y, and A genes would not be expressed. If lactose could not bind to the repressor, the repressor would stay bound to the operator and repress the transcription of the lac Z, Y, and A genes.
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What is the role of glucose in catabolite repression?
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It decreases the levels of cAMP in the cell, repressing transcription from the lac operon. Glucose decreases the levels of cAMP in the cell, preventing formation of the CAP-cAMP complexes necessary for the stimulation of transcription from the lac operon.
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True or false? The trp operon is typically characterized as being both under negative control and repressible.
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True
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A(n) ___ is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.
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operon
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The ___ is/are arranged sequentially after the promoter.
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genes of an operon
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A(n) ___ is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that bind RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.
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promoter
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A(n) ___ codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
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regulatory gene
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Regulatory proteins bind to the ___ to control expression of the operon.
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operator
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A(n) ___ is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
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repressor
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A(n) ___ is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial regulatory protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.
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inducer
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Trp operon/ tryptophan present and lac operon/lactose absent?
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Operon is not transcribed. The trp operon is regulated through negative control only. When tryptophan is present, the operon genes are not transcribed. When lactose is absent, the repressor protein is active, and transcription is turned off.
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Lac operon/lactose present/glucose present and trp operon/tryptophan absent?
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Operon is transcribed, but no sped up through positive control. When lactose is present, the repressor protein is inactivated, and transcription is turned on.
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Lac operon/lactose present/glucose absent?
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Operon is transcribed quickly through positive control. When glucose is absent, another regulatory protein (CAP) binds to the promoter of the lac operon, increasing the rate of transcription if lactose is present.
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Which statements about the modification of chromatin structure in eukaryotes are true?
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Methylation of histone tails in chromatin can promote condensation of the chromatin. Acetylation of histone tails is a reversible process. DNA is not transcribed when chromatin is packaged tightly in a condensed form. Acetylation of histone tails in chromatin allows access to DNA for transcription. Some forms of chromatin modification can be passed on to future generations of cells. One of the mechanisms by which eukaryotes regulate gene expression is through modifications to chromatin structure. When chromatin is condensed, DNA is not accessible for transcription. Acetylation of histone tails reduces the attraction between neighboring nucleosomes, causing chromatin to assume a looser structure and allowing access to the DNA for transcription. If the histone tails undergo deacetylation, chromatin can recondense, once again making DNA inaccessible for transcription. Recent evidence suggests that methylation of histone tails can promote either the condensation or the decondensation of chromatin, depending on where the methyl groups are located on the histones. Thus, methylation can either inactivate or activate transcription, and demethylation can reverse the effect of methylation. Changes in chromatin structure may be passed on to future generations of cells in a type of inheritance called epigenetic inheritance.
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Which statements about the regulation of transcription initiation in these genes are true?
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Both the fantasin gene and the imaginin gene will be transcribed at high levels when activators specific for control elements A, B, C, D, and E are present in the cell. The fantasin gene will be transcribed at a high level when activators specific for control elements A, B, and C are present in the cell. Control elements C, D, and E are distal control elements for the imaginin gene.
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Promoter recognition in bacterial transcription?
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RNA polymerase is a holoenzyme composed of a five-subunit core enzyme and a sigma (σ) subunit. Different types of σ subunits aid in the recognition of different forms of bacterial promoters. The bacterial promoter is located immediately upstream of the starting point of transcription (identified as the +1 nucleotide of the gene). The promoter includes two short sequences, the -10 and -35 consensus sequences, which are recognized by the σ subunit.
question
Chain initiation in bacterial transcription?
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The RNA polymerase holoenzyme first binds loosely to the promoter sequence and then binds tightly to it to form the closed promoter complex. An open promoter complex is formed once approximately 18 bp of DNA around the -10 consensus sequence are unwound. The holoenzyme then initiates RNA synthesis at the +1 nucleotide of the template strand.
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Chain elongation in bacterial transcription?
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The RNA-coding region is the portion of the gene that is transcribed into RNA. RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA in the 5′ → 3′ direction as it moves along the template strand of DNA. The nucleotide sequence of the RNA transcript is complementary to that of the template strand and the same as that of the coding (nontemplate) strand, except that the transcript contains U instead of T.
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Chain termination in bacterial transcription?
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Most bacterial genes have a pair of inverted repeats and a polyadenine sequence located downstream of the RNA-coding region. Transcription of the inverted repeats produces an RNA transcript that folds into a stem-loop structure. Transcription of the polyadenine sequence produces a poly-U sequence in the RNA transcript, which facilitates release of the transcript from the DNA.
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Order of events during eukaryotic transcription involving RNA polymerase II?
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1. TFIID binds to the TATA box. 2. TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIIF, and RNA pol II bind. 3. TFIIE and TFIIH bind. 4. Synthesis of the pre-mRNA begins at the +1 nucleotide. 5. A 5' cap is added to the pre-mRNA. 6. Spliceosome complexes carry out intron splicing. 7. A poly-A tail is added to the pre-mRNA.
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True or false? As more is learned about cancer, it has become clear that cancer, with few exceptions, has no genetic basis.
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False
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Cancer is best described as a ___.
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genetic disorder at the cellular level The location of genetic mutations and how they occur vary greatly. However, all cancers result from a genetic disorder at the cellular level
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During which stage can cells either exit the cell cycle or become committed to completing the cell cycle?
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G1 Cells can exit the cell cycle and enter G0 or be committed to initiate DNA synthesis late in G1.
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True or false? The longest stage of interphase is G2.
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False The longest stage of interphase is S; cells typically spend about 7 hours in this stage. The shortest stage of interphase is G2 (3 hours), although the shortest stage of the entire cell cycle is mitosis (1 hour).
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Which condition is evaluated at the G2/M checkpoint?
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Precise replication of DNA A cell checks for precise replication of DNA at the G2/M checkpoint.
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Which protein combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle?
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Cyclin-dependent kinase
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True or false? There are several checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle. All occur in the S phase.
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False
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Which of the following characteristics describes metastasis?
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The ability to form secondary tumors at another site Cells from malignant tumors can break off from the main tumor, travel through the blood or lymph, and establish secondary tumors at another site.
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What is apoptosis?
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Programmed cell death
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Under what circumstances do cells undergo apoptosis?
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It is a natural process involved in a protective mechanism against cancer formation.
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Distinguish between oncogenes and proto-oncogenes.
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Oncogenes are genes that induce or maintain uncontrolled cellular proliferation associated with cancer. They are mutant forms of proto-oncogenes, which normally function to regulate cell division.
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In what ways can proto-oncogenes be converted to oncogenes?
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Gene amplification, repositioning of regulatory sequences, point mutations, translocations.
question
A DNA sequence produces a mutant protein in which several amino acids in the middle of the protein differ from the normal protein. What kind of mutation could have occurred?
answer
An addition and a deletion mutation