HESI - Medical Surgical Practice Exam

24 July 2022
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question
The nurse is assessing a client's laboratory values following administration of chemotherapy. Which lab value leads the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)? A. Serum PTT of 10 seconds B. Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl C. Oxygen saturation of 90% D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
answer
B. Serum calcium of 5 mg/dl. TLS results in hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperuricemia, and hyperphosphatemia.
question
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of severe acute diverticulitis. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit? A. Lower left quadrant pain and a low-grade fever B. Severe pain at McBurney's point and nausea. C. Abdominal pain and intermittent tenesmus D. Exacerbations of severe diarrhea
answer
A. Lower left quadrant pain and a low-grade fever. Left lower quadrant pain occurs with diverticulitis because the sigmoid colon is the most common area for diverticula, and the inflammation of diverticula causes a low-grade fever.
question
During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first? A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the esophagus. B. Reposition the head to validate that the head is in the proper position to open the airway. C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows. D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to remove any vomitus
answer
B. Reposition the head to validate that the head is in the proper position to open the airway. The most frequent cause of inadequate aeration of the client's lungs during CPR is improper positioning of the head resulting in occlusion of the airway. A foreign body can occlude the airway, but this is not common unless choking preceded the cardiac emergency, and should not be the nurse's first action.
question
A client is admitted to the hospital with a medical diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. The nurse knows that the prognosis for gram-negative pneumonias (such as E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, and Proteus) is very poor because: A. They occur in the lower love alveoli which are more sensitive to infection B. Gram-negative organisms are more resistant to antibiotic therapy C. They occur in healthy young adults who have recently been debilitated by an upper respiratory infection. D. Gram-negative pneumonias usually affect infants and small children.
answer
B. Gram-negative organisms are more resistant to antibiotic therapy The gram-negative organisms are resistant to drug therapy which makes recovery very difficult. Gram-negative pneumonias affect all lobes of the lung. The mean age for contracting this type of pneumonia is 50 years, and it usually strikes debilitated persons such as alcoholics, diabetics, and those with chronic lung diseases.
question
A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles. B. High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure. C. Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion. D. Social isolation related to inability to communicate.
answer
A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles. To increase the client's tolerance of endotracheal intubation and/or mechanical ventilation, a skeletal-muscle relaxant, such as vecuronium, is usually prescribed. Impaired communication is a serious outcome because the client cannot communicate his/her needs due to intubation and diaphragmatic paralysis caused by the drug. Although this client might also experience, it is not a priority when compared to A. Infection is not related to increased intracranial pressure. The mechanical ventilator provides consistent lung expansion.
question
When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching? A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times. B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with him at all times. C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that he is a total neck breather. D. Tell the client not to travel alone.
answer
C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that he is a total neck breather. It is imperative that total neck breathers carry a medic alert notice so that if they have a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing can be done. Mouth-to-mouth resuscitation will not help them. They do not need to carry nor refrain from D. There are many alternative means of communication for clients who have had a laryngectomy; depending on B is probably the least effective.
question
The nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with congestive heart failure without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's: A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 B. blood pressure is 104/68 C. serum potassium level is 3 D. apical pulse is 68/min
answer
C. serum potassium level is 3 Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in person receiving digoxin which will increase the change of dangerous dysrhythmias. The therapeutic range for digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/ml. A is within this range. B would not warrant the nurse withholding the digoxin. The nurse should withhold the digoxin if the apical pulse is less than 60/min.
question
After the fourth dose of gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) IV, the nurse plans to draw blood samples to determine peak and trough levels. When are the best times to draw these samples? A. 15 minutes before and 15 minutes after the next dose B. One hour before and one hour after the next dose C. 5 minutes before and 30 minutes after the next dose D. 30 minutes before and 30 minutes after the next dose
answer
C. 5 minutes before and 30 minutes after the next dose. Peak drug serum levels are achieved 30 minutes after IV administration of aminioglycosides. The best time to draw a trough is the closest time to the next administration. A, B, and D are not as good a time to draw the trough as C. B and D are not the best times to draw the peak of an aminoglycoside that has been administered IV.
question
A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, "The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure." Which symptoms are most important to teach the client? A. Facial flushing B. Fever C. Pounding headache D. Feelings of dizziness
answer
D. Feelings of dizziness Feelings of dizziness may occur as the result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output. A and C will not occur as the result of pacemaker failure. B may be an indication of infection postoperatively, but is not an indication of pacemaker failure.
question
A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia? A. Propanolol (Inderal) B. Captopril (Capoten) C. Furosemide (Lasix) D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
answer
A. Propanolol (Inderal) Inderal is a beta adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and decreased contractility. Neither B, an ACE inhibitor, nor C, a loop diuretic, causes bradycardia. D is a sympathomimetic, direct acting cardiac stimulant, which would increase the heart rate.
question
In preparing a discharge plan for a 22-year-old male client diagnosed with Buerger's disease (thromboangilitis obliterans), which referral is most important? A. Genetic counseling B. Twelve-step recovery program C. Clinical nutritionist D. Smoking cessation program
answer
D. Smoking cessation program Buerger's disease is strongly related to smoking. The most effective means of controlling symptoms and disease progression is through smoking cessation. The cause of Buerger's disease is unknown; a genetic predisposition is possible, but A will not be of value. The client with Buerger's disease does not need referral to a 12-step program any more than the general population. Diet is not a significant factor in the disease, and general healthy diet guidelines can be provided by the nurse.
question
Which symptoms should the nurse expect a client to exhibit who is diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma? A. Numbness, tingling, and cramps in the extremities B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations. C. Cyanosis, fever, and classic signs of shock D. Nausea, vomiting, and muscular weakness
answer
B. Headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla, and B is the typical triad of symptoms depending upon the relative proportions of epinephrine and norepinephrine secretion. A lists the signs of latent tetany, exhibited by clients diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. C lists the signs of an Addisonian (adrenal) crisis. D lists the signs of hyperparathyroidism
question
In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse expects the laboratory test results to indicate a decreased serum level of which substance? A. sodium B. antidiuretic hormone C. potassium D. glucose
answer
C. potassium Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium (hyperkalemia) - hypertension is the most prominent and universal sign. A is normal or elevated, depending on the amount of water reabsorbed with the sodium. B is decreased with diabetes insipidus. D is not affected by primary aldosteronism.
question
A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet? A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot. B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes. C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
answer
A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot The loss of a limb by a family member will be the strongest event or "cue to action" and is most likely to increase the perceived seriousness of the disease. B, C, and D may influence his behavior but do not have the personal impact of A.
question
The nurse is taking a history of newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetic who is beginning treatment. Which subjective information is most important for the nurse to note? A. A history of obesity B. An allergy to sulfa drugs C. Cessation of smoking three years ago D. Numbness in the soles of the feet
answer
B. An allergy to sulfa drugs An allergy to sulfa drugs may make the client unable to use some of the most common anti hyperglycemic agents (sulfonyluereas). The nurse needs to highlight this allergy for the healthcare provider. A is common and warrants counseling, but does not have the importance common of B. C does increase the risk for vascular disease, but it is not as important to the treatment regimen as B. Diabetic neuropathy, as indicated by D, is common with diabetics, but when the serum glucose is decreased, new onset numbness can possibly improve.
question
A client with cirrhosis develops increasing pedal edema and ascites. What dietary modification is most important for the nurse to teach this client? A) Avoid high carbohydrate foods. B) Decrease intake of fat soluble vitamins. C) Decrease caloric intake. D) Restrict salt and fluid intake.
answer
D. Restrict salt and fluid intake Salt and fluid restrictions are the first dietary modifications for a client who is retaining fluid as manifested by edema and ascites. A, B, and C will not impact fluid retention.
question
A female client receiving IV vasopressin (Pitressin) for esophageal varice rupture reports to the nurse that she feels substernal tightness and pressure across her chest. Which PRN protocol should the nurse initiate? A) Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion. B) Nasogastric lavage with cool saline. C) Increase the vasopressin infusion. D) Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
answer
A. Start an IV nitroglycerin infusion Vasopressin is used to promote vasoconstriction, thereby reducing bleeding. Vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries can lead to angina and myocardial infarction, and should be counteracted by IV nitroglycerin per prescribed protocol. B will not resolve the cardiac problem. C will worsen the problem. Endotracheal intubation may be needed if respiratory distress occurs.
question
A client who is HIV positive asks the nurse, "How will I know when I have AIDS?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide? A) Diagnosis of AIDS is made when you have 2 positive ELISA test results. B) Diagnosis is made when both the ELISA and the Western Blot tests are positive. C) I can tell that you are afraid of being diagnosed with AIDS. Would you like for me to call your minister? D) AIDS is diagnosed when a specific opportunistic infection is found in an otherwise healthy individual.
answer
D. "AIDS is diagnosed when a specific opportunistic infection is found in an otherwise healthy individual." AIDS is diagnosed when one of several processes defined by the CDC is present in an individual who is not otherwise immunosuppressed. A and B identify the presence of HIV, indicating a high probability that in time the individual will develop AIDS, but do not necessarily denote the presence of AIDS. C is telling the client how he/she feels (afraid) and is dismissing the situation to the minister. This client is asking a question and specific medical information needs to be provided.
question
Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)? A) Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties. B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin. C) Facial weakness and paralysis. D) Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing.
answer
B. Sudden, stabbing, sever pain over the lip and chin. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (5th cranial). A would be characteristics of Mnire's disease (8th cranial nerve). C would be characteristic of Bell's palsy (7th cranial nerve). D would be characteristic of disorders of the hypoglossal cranial nerve (12th).
question
Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement when caring for a client who has just undergone a right above-the-knee amputation? A. Maintain the residual limb on three pillows at all times. B. Place a large tourniquet at the client's bedside C. Apply constant, direct pressure to the residual limb. D. Do not allow the client to lie in the prone position.
answer
B. Place a large tourniquet at the client's bedside. A large tourniquet should be placed in plain sight at the client's bedside. If severe bleeding occurs, the tourniquet should be readily available and applied to the residual limb to control hemorrhage. The residual limb should not be place on a pillow because a flexion contracture of the hip may result. C should be avoided because it may compromise wound healing. D should be encourage to stretch the flexor muscles and to prevent flexion contracture of the hip.
question
The nurse is assessing a client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit? A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing movements B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head. C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatiguability, and ptosis. D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
answer
B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head. B are common clinical features of Parkinsonism. A are symptoms of chorea, C of myasthenia gravis, and D of multiple sclerosis
question
The nurse is completing an admission interview and assessment on a client with a history of Parkinson's disease. Which question provides information relevant to the client's plan of care? A) Have you ever experienced any paralysis of your arms or legs? B) Have you ever sustained a severe head injury? C) Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move? D) Do you have headaches, especially ones with throbbing pain?
answer
C. Have you ever been 'frozen' in one spot, unable to move? Clients with Parkinson's disease frequently experience difficulty in initiating, maintaining, and performing motor activities. They may even experience being rooted to the spot and unable to move. Parkinson's disease does not cause A. Parkinson's disease is not usually associated with B, nor does it typically cause D.
question
The nurse is interviewing a male client with hypertension. Which additional medical diagnosis in the client's history presents the greatest risk for developing a cerebral vascular accident (CVA)? A) Diabetes mellitus. B) Hypothyroidism. C) Parkinson's disease. D) Recurring pneumonia.
answer
A. Diabetes mellitus A history of diabetes mellitus poses the greatest risk for developing a CVA. B, C, and D may place the client at some risk due to immobility, but do not present a risk as great as A.
question
The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of "heart trouble," but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement? A. Ask the client what he means by "heart trouble" B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately. C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old. D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately
answer
B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately. Clients over the age of 40 and/or with a history of cardiovascular disease, should receive ECG evaluation prior to surgery, generally 24 hours to two weeks before. B should be implemented to ensure that the client's current cardiovascular status is stable. Additional data might be valuable, but since time is limited, the priority is to obtain the needed ECG. Documentation of vital signs is important, but does not replace the need for the ECG. The surgeon only needs to be notified if the ECG cannot be completed, or if there is a significant problem.
question
The nurse is receiving report from surgery about a client with a penrose drain who is to be admitted to the postoperative unit. Before choosing a room for this client, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain? A. If suctioning will be needed for drainage of the wound B. If the family would prefer a private or semi-private room C. Null D. If the client' wound is infected
answer
D. If the client's wound is infected. Penrose drains provide a sinus tract or opening and are often used to provide drainage of an abscess. The fact that the client has a penrose drain should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is infected. To avoid contamination of another postoperative client, it is most important to place an infected client in a private room. A penrose drain does not require A. Although is information that should be considered, it does not have the priority of D. C is used to drain fluid from a dead space and is not important in choosing a room.
question
What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina? A. Instruct the client to look at examiner's nose and not move his/her eyes during the exam. B. Set ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye. C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil. D. For optimum visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
answer
C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil. The client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner who should stand at 12 to 15 inches away and to the side of his/her line of vision. The examiner should hold the ophthalmoscope firmly against his/her face and then direct the client's pupil.
question
During lung assessment, the nurse places a stethoscope on a client's chest and instructs him/her to say "99" each time the chest is touched with the stethoscope. What should be the correct interpretation if the nurse hears the spoken words "99" very clearly through the stethoscope? A) This is a normal auscultatory finding. B) May indicate pneumothorax. C) May indicate pneumonia. D) May indicate severe emphysema.
answer
C. May indicate pneumonia This test (whispered pectoriloquy) demonstrates hyperresonance and helps determine the clarity with which spoken words are heard upon auscultation. Normally, the spoken word is not well transmitted through lung tissue, and is heard as a muffled or unclear transmission of the spoken word. Increased clarity of a spoken word is indicative of some sort of consolidation process, and is not a normal finding. When lung tissue is filled with more air than normal, the voice sounds are absent or very diminished.
question
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's A) pulse rate, both apically and radially. B) blood pressure, both standing and sitting. C) temperature. D) skin color and turgor.
answer
C. Temperature It is very important to check the client's temperature. Infection is the most common factor precipitating respiratory distress. Clients with COPD who are on maintenance doses of corticosteroids are particularly predisposed to infection. A and B are important data for baseline and ongoing assessment, but they are nor as important as temperature measurement for this client who is taking steroids. Assessment of skin color and turgor is less important.
question
While working in the emergency room, the nurse is exposed to a client with active tuberculosis. When should the nurse plan to obtain a tuberculin skin test? A) Immediately after the exposure. B) Within one week of the exposure. C) Four to six weeks after the exposure. D) Three months after the exposure.
answer
C. Four to six weeks after the exposure A tuberculin skin test is effective 4 to 6 weeks after an exposure so the individual with a known exposure should wait 4 to 6 weeks before having a tuberculin skin test.
question
The nurse is planning to initiate a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility. Which information would be most useful to the nurse when planning activities for the group? A. The length of time each group member has resided at the nursing home. B. A brief description of each resident's family life C. The age of each group member D. The usual activity patterns of each member of the group
answer
D. The usual activity patterns of each member of the group An older person's level of activity is a determining factor in adjustment of aging as described by the Activity Theory of Aging. All information described in the options might be useful to the nurse, but the most useful information initially would be an assessment of each individual's adjustment to the aging process.
question
The nurse knows that lab values sometimes vary for the older client. Which data should the nurse expect to find when reviewing laboratory values of an 80-year-old male? A) Increased WBC, decreased RBC. B) Increased serum bilirubin, slightly increased liver enzymes. C) Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. D) Decreased serum sodium, an increased urine specific gravity.
answer
C. Increased protein in the urine, slightly increased serum glucose levels. In older adults, the protein found in urine slightly rises probably as a result of kidney changes or subclinical urinary tract infections. The serum glucose increases slightly due to changes in the kidney. The specific gravity declines by age 80 from 1.032 to 1.024
question
A 77-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital. She is confused, has no appetite, is nauseated and vomiting, and is complaining of a headache. Her pulse rate is 43 beats per minute. Which question is a priority for the nurse to ask the client or her family on admission? "Does the client: A. have her own teeth or dentures? B. take aspirin and if so, how much? C. take nitroglycerin? D. take digitalis?
answer
D. take digitalis? Elderly persons are particularly susceptible to digitalis intoxication which manifests itself in such symptoms as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Although it is important to obtain a complete medication history, the symptoms described are classic for digitalis toxicity, and assessment of this problem should be made promptly. A is irrelevant.