Supervisor

25 July 2022
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137 test answers

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Environmental uncertainty in an organization is high when:
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environmental change is extensive.
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Managers feel confident that they can understand, predict, and react to the external forces affecting their businesses when:
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resource scarcity is low.
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Which of the following factors should be taken into account when determining the ethical intensity of an action?
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Temporal immediacy
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Which of the following is a component of the general environment that indirectly affects all organizations?
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Political/legal trends
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_____ is the process of having managers and employees perform new behaviors that are central to and symbolic of the new organizational culture that a company wants to create.
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behavioral addition
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Identify a component of the general environment that indirectly affects all organizations.
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Technology
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Delayed product delivery is less of an issue when compared to delivering a faulty product, which can potentially cause harm. This is because delivering a faulty product has a _____.
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high magnitude of consequences
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The last step in a basic model of ethical decision making is to _____.
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act on the situation
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Which of the following is an argument put forth by economist Milton Friedman?
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It is socially irresponsible for companies to divert time, money, and attention from maximizing profits to social causes and charitable organizations.
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Which of the following stakeholder groups does not engage in regular transactions with a company?
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Special interest groups
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According to psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg, people at the _____ of moral development make decisions that are based on selfish reasons.
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preconventional level
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A(n) _____ is a social responsiveness strategy in which a company does less than society expects.
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reactive strategy
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_____ is a tactic that typically involves framing issues as public issues; exposing questionable, exploitative, or unethical practices; and creating controversy that is likely to receive extensive news coverage.
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Media advocacy
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According to the _____, the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.
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shareholder model
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_____ is the degree of concern people have about an ethical issue.
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Ethical intensity
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_____ refers to a transaction in which one party in the relationship benefits at the expense of the other.
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Opportunistic behavior
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An _____ refers to the values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.
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organizational culture
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Under the _____, an individual should never take any action that harms the least fortunate people in some way.
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principle of distributive justice
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Which of the following statements best explains the carrot-and-stick approach of the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines for Organizations?
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Smaller fines are imposed on companies that take proactive steps to encourage ethical behavior.
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Which of the following is true of business confidence indices?
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They show how sure actual managers are about future business growth.
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_____ refers to the emotional reactions that can occur when disagreements become personal rather than professional.
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A-type conflict
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Which of the following is true of the nominal group technique (NGT)?
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It closes with a second quiet time in which group members independently rank the ideas presented.
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In the context of Porter's five industry forces, the threat of new entrants can be defined as
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In the context of Porter's five industry forces, the threat of new entrants can be defined as
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Which of the following is a decision-making method that can be used to create c-type conflict by assigning an individual or a subgroup the role of critic?
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Devil's advocacy
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_____ occurs when a group member must wait to share an idea because another member is presenting an idea.
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Production blocking
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The most popular approach to increase goal commitment is to:
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encourage employee participation while setting goals.
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Which of the following statements is true of analyzers?
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They are a blend of the defender and prospector strategies.
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_____ are responsible for the creation of tactical plans.
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Middle managers
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Which of the following best defines a SWOT analysis?
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It involves assessment of the strengths and weaknesses in an organization's internal environment.
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A drawback of planning is that:
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it causes detachment, which leads planners to plan for things they do not understand.
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Which of the following statements is true of direct competition?
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It is determined by market commonality and resource similarity.
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In the context of direct competition between firms _____ largely affects response capability, that is, how quickly and forcefully a company can respond to an attack.
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resource similarity
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_____ is a measure of the intensity of competitive behavior among companies in an industry.
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Character of the rivalry
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Which of the following statements is true of a portfolio strategy?
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It is a corporate-level strategy with the purpose of reducing risk in the entire collection of stocks.
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Which of the following best defines a distinctive competence?
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It is what a company can make, do, or perform better than its competitors.
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A _____ is a gap between a desired state and an existing state.
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problem
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_____ is a decision-making method in which members of a panel of experts respond to questions and to each other until an agreement is reached on how a specific issue should be handled.
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delphi
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Which of the following can help managers improve the speed and accuracy with which they determine the need for strategic change?
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Looking for signs of strategic dissonance
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_____ is the fear of what others will think of one's ideas.
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Evaluation apprehension
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In the context of direct competition between firms, _____ affects the likelihood of an attack or a response to an attack.
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market commonality
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_____ are workplace cultures in which workers perceive that new ideas are welcomed, valued, and encouraged.
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Creative work environments
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The _____ is an approach to job redesign that seeks to formulate jobs in ways that motivate workers and lead to positive work outcomes.
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job characteristics model
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During design competition, _____.
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an older technology usually improves significantly in response to the competitive threat from the new technologies
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In the context of resistance to change, _____ is the use of formal power and authority to force others to change.
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coercion
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Which of the following is true of job specialization?
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It occurs when a job is composed of a small part of a larger task or process.
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Which of the following best defines an incremental change?
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It is a phase in which companies innovate by lowering the cost and improving the functioning and performance of a dominant design.
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In the context of managing resistance to change, which of the following is an error that managers make in the change phase?
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They undercommunicate the vision by a factor of ten.
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The second transfer that occurs with delegation is:
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that the manager gives the subordinate full authority over the budget, resources, and personnel needed to do a job.
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_____ is the process used to get workers and managers to change their behaviors and work practices.
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Change intervention
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_____ is a method of subdividing work and workers into separate organizational units that take responsibility for completing particular tasks.
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Departmentalization
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_____ is solving problems by consistently applying the same rules, procedures, and processes.
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Standardization
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The compression approach to innovation management is used in:
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periods of incremental change.
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Which of the following is true of the S-curve pattern of innovation of a product?
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A flat slope indicates that increased effort brings only small improvements in technological performance.
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_____ are forces that produce differences in the form, quality, or condition of an organization over time.
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Change forces
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In _____, different jobs or groups work together in a back-and-forth manner to complete an intraorganizational process.
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reciprocal interdependence
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Which of the following best defines results-driven change?
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It is the change created quickly by focusing on the measurement and improvement of outcomes.
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Technological substitution occurs when:
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customers purchase new products to replace older technologies.
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Which of the following best defines delegation of authority?
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It is the assignment of direct responsibility to a subordinate to complete tasks for which the manager is normally responsible.
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Which of the following statements best defines a staff function?
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It is an activity that does not contribute directly to creating or selling a company's products but instead supports line activities.
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In _____, each job or department contributes to the whole independently.
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pooled interdependence
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Which of the following is a purpose of performance appraisals of employees?
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Evaluating human resource programs
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In the context of work teams, which of the following increases employee job satisfaction?
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Being involved in decision-making processes
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Which of the following signs indicates that a team's size needs to be changed?
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If a few members dominate the team
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Which of the following statements is true of members of self-managing teams?
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They handle and control all of the major tasks directly related to production of a product or service without first getting approval from management.
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In the context of the recruitment process, which of the following best defines validation?
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It is the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
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Which of the following has the most autonomy in the autonomy continuum?
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Self-designing teams
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Which of the following is true of the right team size for good performance?
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A team must be large enough to take advantage of team members' diverse skills and knowledge.
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Which of the following is an advantage of internal recruiting?
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It reduces recruitment start-up time and costs.
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Which of the following is most likely a result of minority domination?
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Team members do not feel accountable for the decision and actions taken by their teams.
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Which of the following is a declining stage when teams are not effectively managed?
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De-forming
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Which of the following is an external recruitment method?
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walk ins
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In which of the following ways can teams have healthy conflicts?
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By focusing on issues rather than personalities
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Which of the following statements is true of affective conflict?
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It relates to the emotional reactions that can occur when disagreements become personal rather than professional.
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From a legal perspective, the two kinds of sexual harassment are:
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quid pro quo and hostile work environment.
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Identify a subjective performance measure.
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Graphic rating scales
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of a large team?
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In a large team, team members find it difficult to get to know one another.
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Which of the following is true of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)?
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It requires that employers provide employees with a workplace that is free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm.
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Social loafing occurs when:
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team members withhold their efforts and fail to perform their share of the work.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of cognitive conflict?
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Reconciliation
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Job specifications can be defined as:
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a written summary of the qualifications needed to successfully perform a particular job.
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Diversity drives business growth by:
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attracting different customers and markets.
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Which of the following defines motivation?
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It is the set of forces that initiates, directs, and makes people persist in their efforts to accomplish a goal.
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When the employees of a company feel that rewards are fairly allocated, it illustrates _____.
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distributive justice
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The access and legitimacy paradigm focuses on:
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the acceptance and celebration of differences to ensure that the diversity within a company matches the diversity found among primary stakeholders.
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In the context of motivation, _____ is concerned with the choices that people make about how long they will put forth effort in their jobs before reducing or eliminating those efforts.
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persistence of effort
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Recognizing deep-level diversity is important because it can:
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result in less prejudice, discrimination, and conflict in the workplace.
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Which of the following is a reason for smaller representation of minority groups in management positions?
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Most companies do not prefer hiring candidates of minority groups.
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According to goal-setting theory, _____ is the extent to which a goal is hard or challenging to accomplish.
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goal difficulty
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According to _____, goals energize behavior and also create tension between the goal, which is the desired future state of affairs, and where the employee or company is now, meaning the current state of affairs.
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goal-setting theory
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McClelland stated in his theory that:
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needs are learned, not innate.
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Which of the following statements is true of organizational plurality?
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All members are empowered to contribute in a way that maximizes the benefits to an organization, customers, and themselves.
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_____ is a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
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A disability
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In the context of equity theory, _____ occurs when a referent's outcome/input (O/I) ratio is better than one's own O/I ratio.
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underreward
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According to Maslow, which of the following is on the top of the hierarchy of needs?
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Self-actualization needs
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The term _____ refers to a variety of demographic, cultural, and personal differences among an organization's employees and customers.
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diversity
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Which of the following statements describes positive reinforcement?
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It strengthens behavior by following behaviors with desirable consequences.
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When people perceive that they have been underrewarded, they tend to
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experience anger or frustration.
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Which of the following steps should companies take to reduce age discrimination?
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They need to monitor the extent to which older workers receive training.
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Which of the following steps a manager can take to use goal-setting theory as a motivational tool for his employees?
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Make sure workers truly accept organizational goals.
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Which of the following is a significant factor behind the lack of women at top levels of management?
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Women face sex discrimination.
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The great person theory holds that:
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leaders are born, not made.
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In the context of nonverbal communication, _____ are movements of the body and face.
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kinesics
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In the context of locus of control as a subordinate contingency, which of the following is true of externals?
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They believe that what happens to them is caused by external forces.
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In the context of environmental contingencies, which of the following describes the formal authority system?
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It is an organization's set of procedures, rules, and policies.
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Which of the following is true of supportive leadership?
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It involves being approachable to employees and treating them as equals.
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_____ is a type of one-on-one communication that involves communicating with someone for the direct purpose of improving the person's on-the-job performance or behavior.
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Coaching
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Which of the following is true of transformational leaders?
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They are able to make their followers feel that they are a vital part of their organization.
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Fiedler uses a questionnaire called the _____ scale to measure leadership style.
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Least Preferred Coworker
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In the context of the basic perception process, _____ is the process of incorporating new information into your existing knowledge.
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organization
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_____ is an important part of empathetic listening because it demonstrates that you understand the speaker's emotions.
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Reflecting feelings
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_____ is the process by which individuals attend to, organize, interpret, and retain information from their environments.
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Perception
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_____ is feedback intended to be helpful, corrective, and/or encouraging.
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Constructive feedback
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_____ is feedback that disapproves without any intention of being helpful and almost always causes a negative or defensive reaction in the recipient.
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Destructive feedback
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Which of the following is true of leaders?
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They focus on vision, mission, goals, and organizational objectives.
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Which of the following is a function of leaders?
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Leaders inspire people and take a long-term view.
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_____ is a type of one-on-one communication that involves communicating with someone about non-job-related issues that may be affecting or interfering with the person's performance.
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Counseling
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_____ is used to give organizational members job-related information, to give managers and workers performance reviews from upper managers, and to clarify organizational objectives and goals.
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Downward communication
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Which of the following is a trait difference between leaders and nonleaders?
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Leaders display more honesty and integrity than nonleaders.
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According to the normative decision theory, in which of the following situations should a group decision style be used?
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When subordinates are likely to disagree or end up in conflict over a decision
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In the context of the communication process, _____ makes senders aware of possible miscommunications and enables them to continue communicating until the receiver understands the intended message.
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feedback
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_____ is a mechanism for gathering information about performance deficiencies after they occur.
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Feedback control
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Identify a true statement about a self-control system.
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It does not restrict workers with boundaries.
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_____ is the use of observable measures of worker behavior or outputs to assess performance and influence behavior.
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Objective control
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Once a company compares its actual performance to performance standards, the next step it should take in the control process is to:
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identify performance deviations.
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_____ are the costs associated with implementing or maintaining control.
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Regulation costs
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Which of the following is an advantage of the balanced scorecard?
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It eliminates the problem of regulation costs.
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The final step in setting standards by benchmarking is to _____.
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collect data to determine other companies' performance standards
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Managers who use bureaucratic control are known to:
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emphasize following the rules above all else.
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_____ occurs when performance improvement is attained in one part of an organization but only at the expense of decreased performance in another part.
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Suboptimization
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_____ is the regulation of workers' behavior and decisions through widely shared organizational values and beliefs.
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Concertive control
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To determine whether control is worthwhile, a company must consider its _____.
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regulation costs
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When setting standards by benchmarking, the first step is to determine _____.
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what to benchmark
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A disadvantage of feedback is that:
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A disadvantage of feedback is that:
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When the control process is described as cybernetic, it means that:
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constant attention to the feedback loop is required to keep the company's activity on course.
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_____ is the use of hierarchical authority to influence employee behavior by rewarding or punishing employees for compliance or noncompliance with organizational policies, rules, and procedures.
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Bureaucratic control
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_____ is a mechanism for gathering information about performance deficiencies before they occur.
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Feedback control
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Concertive controls are based on:
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beliefs that are shaped and negotiated by work groups.