Lab Exam 3: Mastering A&P

24 July 2022
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question
Oxygen is attached to _______. a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin b. a calcium atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin c. a calcium atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin d. an iron atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
answer
a. an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
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The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is evaluated using _______. a. hematocrit measurements and cholesterol measurements b. hemoglobin measurements c. hematocrit measurements d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements e. cholesterol measurements
answer
d. hematocrit measurements and hemoglobin measurements
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Release of which of the following hormones results in higher levels of erythrocytes? erythropoietin testosterone and erythropoietin estrogen estrogen and erythropoietin testosterone
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testosterone and erythropoietin
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Which type of anemia is a genetic disorder resulting in abnormally shaped erythrocytes? aplastic anemia sickle cell anemia pernicious anemia polycythemia
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sickle cell anemia
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The blood sample from which of the following had the highest hematocrit? a healthy female living in Boston a healthy male living in Boston a healthy male living in Denver a healthy female living in Denver
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a healthy male living in Denver
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The blood sample(s) from which of the following displayed polycythemia? a. a healthy male living in Denver b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver c. a healthy female living in Denver d. a healthy male living in Boston and a healthy male living in Denver e. a healthy male living in Boston
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b. a healthy female living in Denver and a healthy male living in Denver
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The hematocrit for the female with iron-deficiency anemia was _______. a. below normal b. above normal c. normal d. above normal and indicative of polycythemia e. indicative of polycythemia
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a. below normal
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Which of the samples are from patients that suffer from a condition in which insufficient oxygen is transported to the body's cells? samples 1 and 3 samples 1 and 2 samples 3 and 4 samples 5 and 6
answer
samples 5 and 6
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Which of the following would indicate a worsening of the disease? a. decreased ESR with angina b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis c. decreased ESR with acute appendicitis d. decreased ESR with pelvic inflammatory disease
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b. increased ESR with rheumatoid arthritis
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Rouleaux formation is characterized by _______. an increase in ESR a decrease in ESR a decrease in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production an increase in ESR and a decrease in fibrinogen production a decrease in fibrinogen production
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an increase in ESR
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ESR is useful in distinguishing between _______. a. rheumatoid arthritis and bone cancer b. angina and a myocardial infarction as well as acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy c. acute appendicitis and ruptured ectopic pregnancy d. angina and a myocardial infarction e. All of the above are correct.
answer
b.
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Erythrocyte sedimentation relies upon _______. filtration blood pressure gravity centrifugation
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gravity
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The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the ________. trachea esophagus small intestine oral canal
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esophagus
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This GI tract organ stores food temporarily, and continues the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food. oral cavity small intestine stomach esophagus
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stomach
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The tube that leaves the stomach (and is the first part of the small intestine) is called the ________.
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duodenum
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This GI tract organ acts like a drying oven. It absorbs water from its contents, and consolidates and propels the unusable components of food toward elimination from the body.
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large intestine
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The lining of the alimentary canal is a ________.
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mucous membrane
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This enzyme, produced by the salivary glands, digests carbohydrates.
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salivary amylase
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This fat-digesting enzyme does the major work of digesting fats in the small intestine.
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lipase
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Emulsifies fat, keeping tiny fat droplets suspended in the aqueous contents of the gut
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bile
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Which type of movement in the GI system propels food along the entire alimentary canal?
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peristalsis
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enamel
enamel
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what is number 1?
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dentin
dentin
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what is number 2?
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gingiva
gingiva
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what is number 3?
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cementum
cementum
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what is number 4?
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root canal
root canal
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what is number 5?
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periodontal ligament
periodontal ligament
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what is number 6?
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crown
crown
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what is number 7?
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neck
neck
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what is number 8?
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root
root
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what is number 9?
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Fats, in the presence of litmus (that indicates pH of the solution), are shown to be digested ________.
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when the solution in the test tube turns pink (acidic)
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The protein-digesting enzyme that works in the stomach is ________.
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pepsin
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The GI organ that is the major site of nutrient absorption is the ________.
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small intestine
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This enzyme, which digests carbohydrates, is found in saliva and in the small intestine.
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amylase
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This accessory organ of the digestive system makes digestive enzymes that act upon all of the major food types.
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pancreas
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The digestive function of the liver is to ________.
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produce bile
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The heart is located in a subdivision of the thorax called the ________
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mediastinum
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How many heart valves are there?
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4
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They lie between the atria and the ventricular chambers on each side of the heart.
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Mitral and Tricuspid valves
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They enforce a one-way blood flow through the heart, operate passively (no active contraction required), and separate atria from ventricles, and ventricles from the large arteries that leave them.
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heart valves
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Which side of the heart receives blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs?
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right
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The pulmonary trunk and arteries are color-coded ________ on models and in pictures, because they carry ________ blood.
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blue, deoxygenated
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In the coronary circulation oxygenated blood is provided to the heart muscle by the ________.
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right and left coronary arteries
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Cardiac muscle tissue ________.
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is striated, like skeletal muscle tissue
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In sequential order, the components of the intrinsic conduction system, beginning at the SA node, are ________.
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Av node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
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The QRS complex is associated with ________.
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Depolarization of the ventricles
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Name the ridged bundles of muscle found projecting inside the right atrium. Pectinate muscles Papillary muscles Intercalated discs Trabeculae carneae
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pectinate muscles
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Identify the right atrioventricular valve. Pulmonary valve Aortic semilunar valve Bicuspid valve Tricuspid valve
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tricuspid valve
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Identify the valve located at the exit of the right ventricle. Aortic semilunar valve Pulmonary semilunar valve Tricuspid valve Bicuspid valve
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pulmonary semilunar valve
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The moderator band is found on both the right and left side of the heart. True False
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false
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Oxygenated blood flows through the right side of the heart. False True
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false
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Identify the most muscular chamber. Right atrium Left atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle
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left ventricle
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Name the inner lining of the heart. Endocardium Pericardium Epicardium Myocardium
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endocardium
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Identify the valve found between the left atrium and left ventricle.
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Bicuspid (mitral) valve
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What heart chamber pushes blood through the aortic semilunar valve? Right atrium Left atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle
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left ventricle
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Name the needle like ridges of muscle lining the ventricles. Papillary muscles Trabeculae carneae Chordae tendineae Pectinate muscles
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Trabeculae carneae
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What fibrous structure functions to anchor the atrioventricular valves in a closed position? Papillary muscle Chordae tendineae Trabeculae carneae Moderator band
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chordae tendineae
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Blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed. False True
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true
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Identify the ear like flaps that are attached to the top chambers of the heart. Auricle Atrium Coronary sinus Pectinate muscles
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auricle
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The first branch off the arch of the aorta is the brachiocephalic artery in both the sheep and the human. False True
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true
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Which chamber of the heart exits into the pulmonary trunk? Right atrium Left atrium Right ventricle Left ventricle
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right ventricle
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What is the function of the coronary circulation?
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Provide a blood supply to the heart
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What is the ligamentum arteriosum?
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a remanent of the ductus arteriosus (The ductus arteriosus is a fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.)
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Blood arriving in the right atrium has just come from the ________. right ventricle aorta left atrium venae cavae and coronary sinus
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venae cavae and coronary sinus
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Blood has just been discharged into the pulmonary trunk: from which chamber did it exit?
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right ventricle
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*** ASK CALLIE bc i Dont get it ** These vessels carry oxygenated blood. venae cavae and pulmonary veins aorta and pulmonary veins aorta and pulmonary trunk venae cavae and pulmonary artery
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aorta and pulmonary veins
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What is the name of the circuit that supplies blood to the brain, heart, and gastrointestinal tract?
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systemic circulation
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________ is/are found in the ventricles, and attach the flaps of the AV valves to papillary muscle.
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chordae tendineae
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Bradycardia describes a heart rate of ________.
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less than 60 beats/minute
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Ventricular fibrillation is ________. a. slow, strong ventricular contractions b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions c. fluttering of the atria d. strong, rhythmic atrial contractions
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b. rapid, uncoordinated ventricular contractions
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The inferior vena cava drains the ________. abdomen abdomen and lower extremities head and upper extremities thorax
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abdomen and lower extremities
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In a microscopic field showing an artery and its corresponding vein, you can easily distinguish the two because ________. a. veins have thinner walls and are irregular in shape b. arteries are round and larger than veins c. veins are round and have thicker walls d. arteries have a larger internal opening than veins
answer
a.
question
There are two brachiocephalic veins and ________ brachiocephalic artery (or arteries).
answer
1
question
Arteries that supply the intestines arise from the aorta. Veins that drain the intestines ________. a. empty into the hepatic veins b. enter the inferior vena cava directly c. join to form the common intestinal vein that enters the vena cava d. ultimately drain into the hepatic portal vein
answer
d.
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Which of the following had the fastest sedimentation rate? a. the individual with sickle cell anemia b. the individual with angina pectoris c. the healthy individual d. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction
answer
d.
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Which sample did NOT settle at all in one hour? a. the healthy individual b. the individual suffering a myocardial infarction c. the individual with angina pectoris d. the individual with sickle cell anemia
answer
d.
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In comparing the sedimentation rate for the individual with angina pectoris with that of the healthy individual, which of the following statements is true? a. The sedimentation rate was greater for the individual with angina pectoris. b. The sedimentation rate was greater for the healthy individual. c. The sedimentation rates were the same for both individuals. d. The sedimentation rate was not measured for the individual with angina pectoris.
answer
c.
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Which of the following explains the result for the individual with sickle cell anemia? a. The lack of iron in the red blood cells allowed them the settle faster. b. The shape of the red blood cells allowed them to settle faster. c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling. d. The lack of iron prevented the red blood cells from settling.
answer
c. The shape of the red blood cells prevented them from settling.
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Each hemoglobin molecule can carry ______________ oxygen molecule(s). one three four two
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four
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Which of the following does NOT result in an increase in hemoglobin levels? congestive heart failure polycythemia living at high altitudes hyperthyroidism
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hyperthyroidism
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has oxygen attached to the iron atom
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Oxyhemoglobin
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Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level? the healthy female the healthy male the male with polycythemia the female Olympic athlete
answer
the female Olympic athlete
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Which of the following blood samples did NOT have a normal ratio of PCV to Hb? ? a. the male with polycythemia b.the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the healthy female c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia d. the female with iron-deficiency anemia and the male with polycythemia e.the healthy female
answer
c. the female with iron-deficiency anemia
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Which of the following individuals had the highest hemoglobin level? the healthy female the healthy male the male with polycythemia the female Olympic athlete
answer
the female Olympic athlete
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Which of the following describes the blood sample for the female Olympic athlete?
answer
Her hemoglobin level and her hematocrit were above normal.
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A person with type O blood has _______. neither A nor B agglutinogens neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins O agglutinins O antigens
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neither A nor B agglutinogens
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With respect to ABO and Rh blood groups, there are __________ different blood types.
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eight
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A person with type AB blood has _______.
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A and B antigens and neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies.
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A person with A+ blood has _______. a. the A antigen on the surface of the red blood cells b. Rh antigen on the surface of the red blood cells c. anti-B antibodies d.all of the above
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d. all of the above
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Which blood sample contained the universal recipient?
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sample 5
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Which of the following terms can be used interchangeably? antigen and agglutinin agglutinogen and agglutinin antigen and antibody antigen and agglutinogen
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antigen and agglutinogen
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Blood type A- would give which of the following results? a. agglutination with anti-A antibodies and agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies b. agglutination with anti-B antibodies c. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies and agglutination with anti-B antibodies d. agglutination with anti-A antibodies e. agglutination with anti-Rh antibodies
answer
d.
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Which of the blood samples tested could donate to a person with type A+ blood?
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samples 1 and 4
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LDLs contain?
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cholesterol and protein
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In the activity for blood cholesterol we measured?
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total blood cholesterol
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Hypercholesterolemia is linked to _______.
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low levels of serotonin
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The cholesterol determination is _______.
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enzymatic and colorimetric
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Which of the following were disposed of in the biohazardous waste disposal?
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the alcohol wipe, the lancet, and the cholesterol strip
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Which patient sample(s) tested in the elevated range?
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sample 2
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Which patient sample(s) tested in the desirable range?
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sample 1 and 3
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Which patient sample(s) tested in the borderline elevated range?
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sample 4
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The autorhythmicity of cardiac pacemaker cells is made possible by the reduced permeability of _______.
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potassium
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The repolarization of cardiac muscle is due to _______.
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potassium exiting the cell
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The total refractory period of cardiac muscle _______.
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is longer than the total refractory period for skeletal muscle
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Skeletal muscle is capable of which of the following?
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wave summation and fused tetanus
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Delivering single shocks in succession to stimulate the frog heart _______.
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did not increase the height of the ventricular systole wave
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The doublet that results with more frequent stimulation of the frog heart represents _______.
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an extrasystole and an extra contraction of the ventricles
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When the ventricles beat rapidly in succession, _______.
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a compensatory pause followed
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When multiple stimuli were applied at 20 stimuli/sec, _______.
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extrasystoles were produced
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The effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart is to _______.
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increase the heart rate and increase the force of contraction
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Which branch of the autonomic nervous system dominates after a large meal?
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the parasympathetic branch
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The sinoatrial node is located _______.
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in the right atrial wall of the human heart
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Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in _______.
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a decrease in heart rate and, eventually, a temporary cessation of the heartbeat
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When vagus nerve stimulation was applied to the frog heart, _______.
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the heart rate slowed and eventually stopped
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What part of your tracing illustrates vagal escape?
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the part where the heart resumed beating
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Research shows that in the absence of neural and hormonal influences, the SA node generates action potentials at a frequency of about 100 times per minute. However, the resting heart rate is about 70 beats per minute. What would the approximate heart rate be if the vagus nerve were severed?
answer
about 100 beats per minute
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about 100 beats per minute
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the SA node
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Organisms that have temperature fluctuations that coincide with the external temperature and lack internal homeostatic temperature regulatory mechanisms are?
answer
poikilothermic
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Which part of the human body regulates temperature?
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hypothalamus
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Heat-releasing mechanisms include which of the following?
answer
vasodilation and sweating
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For the frog heart, temperature and heart rate are _______.
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directly proportional
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If the human heart were experiencing hyperthermia, what do you think would be the effect on the heart rate? (elevated body temperatures)
answer
the heart rate would increase
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what does ringers solution contain?
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cations, anions and electrolytes
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Which of the following affect heart rate through the use of a cAMP (second messenger) system? epinephrine and norepinephrine acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine epinephrine norepinephrine acetylcholine
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epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Which of the following decreases the rate of depolarization in the heart?
answer
acetylcholine
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The sinoatrial node has receptors for _______.
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acetylcholine, epinephrine and norepinephrine
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An adrenergic drug that worked in opposition to epinephrine would _______.
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be an antagonist and decrease heart rate
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Muscarine is a poison found in poisonous mushrooms. Muscarine binds to acetylcholine receptors and mimics its action. Which of the following describes the effect of muscarine?
answer
Like pilocarpine, it decreases the heart rate.
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Beta blockers are used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension). Which receptors do you think are being blocked? muscarinic nicotinic alpha-adrenergic
answer
beta-adrenergic
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With respect to heart rate, which of the following worked in opposition to each other?
answer
digitalis and atropine
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With respect to heart rate, which of the following had the same effect?
answer
digitalis and pilocarpine as well as atropine and epinephrine
question
When the cardiac muscle cell is at rest, the concentration of _____________ is greater on the outside of the cell.
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sodium and calcium
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Modifiers that affect the force of contraction of the heart are _______.
answer
inotropic
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The movement of _______________ into the cardiac muscle cell depolarizes the cardiac muscle cell.
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sodium and calcium
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Modifiers that affect heart rate are _______.
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chronotropic
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Which ion(s) at least initially lowered the frog heart rate in the activity you just performed?
answer
potassium and sodium
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What effect does potassium have on the resting membrane potential of the cardiac cell?
answer
Increasing extracellular potassium causes the resting membrane potential to become more positive.
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The cardiac cell plasma membrane is most permeable to _______________________.
answer
potassium
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Calcium channel blockers block the movement of calcium _______.
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into the cell and decrease heart rate
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A ___________________ drug increases the force of contraction of the heart.
answer
positive inotropic