EMT CH 8 Patient Assessment Quiz

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient, you should: A. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. B. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. C. place him or her in the recovery position. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

Which of the following would the EMT most likely not perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? A. assessment of oxygen saturation B. systemic head-to-toe examination C. focused secondary assessment D. noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

The "Golden Period" begins when an injury occurs and ends when: A. you arrive at the emergency department. B. the patient is admitted to the ICU. C. the patient receives definitive care. D. you depart the scene for the hospital.

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator. B. request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival. C. proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival. D. confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first: A. reassess your interventions. B. confirm medical history findings. C. obtain updated vital signs. D. repeat the primary assessment.

A palpable pulse is created by: A. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. B. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. C. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. D. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.

You respond to the residence of a 62-year-old male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should: A. ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease. B. start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance. D. perform CPR and transport the patient immediately.

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up? A. notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel B. rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status C. asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog D. noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function? A. Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed. B. Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced. C. Both pupils dilate with introduction of a bright light. D. Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly.

You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should: A. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance. B. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured. C. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance. D. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.

When performing a full-body scan on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? A. extremities B. abdomen C. anterior chest D. posterior

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. B. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. C. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. D. A secondary assessment should be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the reason why the patient called EMS. B. the nature of any newly identified problems. C. the patient's response to your treatment. D. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: A. ventricles contracting. B. atria relaxing. C. atria contracting. D. ventricles relaxing.

When assessing the skin of an unconscious patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: A. pallor. B. mottling. C. flushing. D. cyanosis.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? A. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. B. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point. C. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers. D. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. look in the ears for gross bleeding. B. maintain stabilization of the head. C. prepare the immobilization equipment. D. assess the rest of the body for bleeding.

A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate: A. a loss of vascular tone. B. forceful cardiac contraction. C. increased blood volume. D. arterial constriction.

Palpating the carotid pulse is not recommended in infants because: A. you may inadvertently compress the trachea. B. the pulse rate is usually too fast to count. C. the carotid artery is more anterior in infants. D. a decrease in cerebral perfusion may occur.

A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography, would MOST likely be observed if: A. there is an absence or decrease in the level of CO2 in the lungs. B. a patient in cardiac arrest is receiving high-quality CPR. C. an endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed in the trachea. D. the cells produce large amounts of CO2 and return it to the lungs.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is MOST correct? A. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. B. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. C. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning. D. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs.

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. B. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. C. most life-threatening condition that you discover. D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

The full-body scan of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: A. 120 to 180 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 30 seconds. D. 60 to 90 seconds.

When you assess capillary refill time (CRT) in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: A. 1 second. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 2 seconds.

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. level of distress. B. pulse strength. C. race and gender. D. appearance.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. elevate his legs and keep him warm. C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. D. ensure that his airway is patent.

After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury: A. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. B. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. C. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. D. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly.

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? A. rales B. stridor C. crackles D. rhonchi

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. B. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. C. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. D. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: A. systolic pressure. B. diastolic pressure. C. blood pressure. D. pulse pressure.

A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. inquire about his family history. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. perform a head-to-toe assessment.

Typical methods of assessing a patient's breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. feeling for air movement at the nose and mouth. B. listening to breath sounds with a stethoscope. C. observing for nasal flaring during inhalation. D. observing the chest for adequate rise and fall.

Supplemental oxygen via nonrebreathing mask should be administered to patients: A. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume. B. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused, is in obvious respiratory distress, and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate livesaving treatment, you should: A. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. B. perform a rapid scan of her entire body and prepare for immediate transport. C. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas. D. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately.

A patient who does not respond to your questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to verbal stimuli. C. completely unresponsive. D. responsive to painful stimuli.

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A. "I was in the hospital a week ago." B. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." C. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began."

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A. mottled and cool. B. pale and moist. C. cyanotic and dry. D. flushed and red.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A. Korotkoff sounds. B. rhonchi. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. crepitus

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: A. irregular. B. slow. C. thready. D. rapid.

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the diaphragm (head) of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. A. radial B. apical C. femoral D. brachial

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: A. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. B. has an increased heart rate and retractions. C. is restless and is working hard to breathe. D. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? A. beta-blocker medications B. lack of a regular exercise routine C. internal bleeding from trauma D. anxiety or severe stress

You receive a call to a local daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. After delivering two rescue breaths, you should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for 10 to 15 seconds. B. assess for the presence of a brachial pulse. C. begin chest compressions and request backup. D. immediately transport the child to the hospital.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. provoking. B. palliating. C. radiating. D. referred.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? A. The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury. B. You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. C. If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment. D. A focused secondary assessment would be the most appropriate approach for a patient who experienced significant trauma to multiple body systems.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. venous vasoconstriction. B. decreased blood oxygen. C. increased blood oxygen. D. peripheral vasodilation.

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A. opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion B. opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain C. opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain D. eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? A. multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall B. one side of the chest wall moves opposite the direction of the other C. a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing D. only one section of the chest rises on inspiration while another area falls

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. C. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. D. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: A. pink. B. flushed. C. cyanotic. D. ashen.

When performing a full-body scan on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle's sign. This is defined as: A. bruising behind the ear. B. unequal pupils. C. swelling to the orbital area. D. fluid drainage from the nose.

A full-body scan should be performed on: A. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. C. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. D. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients.

When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene? A. after you have triaged all the critical patients B. after noncritical patients have been identified C. when all the deceased patients are accounted for D. when you determine there are multiple patients

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the pupils to remain significantly constricted? A. intracranial hemorrhaging B. oculomotor nerve pressure C. severe cerebral hypoxia D. overdose of an opiate drug

In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. A. femoral B. carotid C. brachial D. radial

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: A. alleviate the pain. B. change the pain. C. worsen the pain. D. initiate the pain.

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. any time before you load the patient into the ambulance. B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding. C. immediately after completion of your primary assessment. D. upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact.

When a patient's respirations are shallow: A. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. B. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. C. chest rise will be easily noticeable. D. tidal volume is markedly reduced.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult should range from: A. 18 to 24 breaths per minute. B. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. C. 10 to 15 breaths per minute. D. 24 to 28 breaths per minute.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman who fell reveals an altered level of consciousness and a large hematoma to her forehead. After protecting her spine and administering oxygen, you should: A. reassess your interventions. B. perform a rapid scan. C. transport the patient immediately. D. perform an exam focusing on her head.