AP Biology Unit 5-6 Topic Questions Study Guide

6 September 2022
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question
Table 1 shows the stage and number of cells and chromosomes per cell at the end of the stage in a 2n=24 organism. Which of the following statements correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?
answer
Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.
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Both mitosis and meiosis begin with a parent cell that is diploid. Which of the following best describes how mitosis and meiosis result in daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes?
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Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells after one round of division. Meiosis produces four haploid daughter cells after two rounds of division.
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Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a diploid yeast species that can reproduce either sexually or asexually. An experiment was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis. Which of the following best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes?
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The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.
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During prophase I replicated homologous chromosomes pair up and undergo synapsis. What testable question is generated regarding synapsis and genetic variability by Figure 1 ?
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Is the distance between two gene loci related to crossover rate?
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Scientists have found that DNA methylation suppresses crossing-over in the fungus Ascobolus immersus. Which of the following questions is most appropriately raised by this specific observation?
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Is the level of genetic variation in the gametes related to the amount of DNADNA methylation observed?
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A model showing two possible arrangements of chromosomes during meiosis is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following questions about genetic diversity could most appropriately be answered by analysis of the model in Figure 1 ?
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How does the independent assortment of the two sets of homologous chromosomes increase genetic diversity?
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The Russian blue is a rare breed of cat that is susceptible to developing cataracts on the eyes. Scientists hypothesize that this condition is inherited as a result of a mutation. Figure 1 shows a pedigree obtained in a study of cats owned by members of the Russian Blue Club in Sweden. Based on the inheritance pattern shown in Figure 1, which of the following best predicts the nature of the original mutation?
answer
A recessive mutation on a somatic chromosome
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Insulin is a hormone produced by some pancreatic cells. Scientists have isolated the DNA sequence that codes for human insulin production. Which of the following best predicts the effect of inserting this gene into the DNA of a bacterial cell?
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The recombinant bacterium will produce human insulin using its own transcription and translation machinery.
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In sweet pea plants, purple flower color is dominant over red flower color and long pollen grain shape is dominant over round pollen grain shape. Two sweet pea plants that are heterozygous for both flower color and pollen grain shape are crossed with one another. A geneticist is surprised to observe that there are far fewer round, purple offspring and long, red offspring than were predicted by the 9:3:3:1 expected phenotypic ratio. Which of the following statements provides the most reasonable prediction to account for the deviation from the expected results?
answer
In sweet pea plants, the gene for flower color and the gene for pollen grain shape are genetically linked.
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A student crosses a pure-breeding line of red-flowered poinsettias with a pure-breeding line of white-flowered poinsettias. The student observes that all the plants in the F1 generation have pink flowers. The student then crosses the F1 plants with one another and records observations about the plants in the F2 generation. The student will use the F2 data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of incomplete dominance. The setup for the student's chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1. The critical value for a chi-square test with a significance level of p=0.05 and 2 degrees of freedom is 5.99. Which of the following statements best completes the student's chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The calculated chi-square value is 1.53, and the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.
question
In fruit flies, purple eyes and ebony body are traits that display autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance. In a genetics experiment, students cross wild-type flies with flies that have purple eyes and ebony bodies. The students observe that all the flies in the F1 generation have normal eyes and a normal body color. The students then allow the F1 flies to mate and produce an F2 generation. The students record observations about the flies in the F2 generation and use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment. The setup for the students' chi-square goodness-of-fit test is presented in Table 1. The students choose a significance level of p=0.01. Which of the following statements best completes the next step of the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The calculated chi-square value is 10.48, and the critical value is 11.35.
question
n a strain of tomato plants, short plant height and small fruit size are traits that display autosomal recessive patterns of inheritance. To investigate whether the traits segregate independently, researchers cross a pure-breeding line of tall tomato plants that have large fruits with a pure-breeding line of short tomato plants that have small fruits. The researchers observe that all the plants in the F1 generation are tall and have large fruits. The researchers cross the F1 plants with one another to generate an F2 generation. The researchers record observations for the F2 generation and will use the data to perform a chi-square goodness-of-fit test for a model of independent assortment. The setup for the chi-square goodness-of-fit test is shown in Table 1. The researchers choose a significance level of p=0.05. Which of the following best completes the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The calculated chi-square value is 9.24, and the critical value is 7.82. The null hypothesis of independent assortment can be rejected.
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The researchers calculate a chi-square value of 4.6 and choose a significance level of p=0.05. Which of the following statements best completes the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The null hypothesis cannot be rejected because the chi-square value is less than the critical value.
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In order to determine the effects of age on the accumulation of mitochondrial mutations, mitochondrial DNA samples from young mice (3 months) and old mice (30 months) were observed for mutations. Which of the following is a correct analysis of this data set?
answer
There is an increase in the mean number of mutations for the two age groups of 9.2 mutations per 106106 base pairs. This is more critical in female mammals since mitochondria are maternally inherited.
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Which of the following is the mean number per cross of F2 generation offspring that are the result of crossing over?
answer
2.2
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Pigeons demonstrate ZW sex determination, such that a ZZ genotype produces a male and a ZW genotype produces a female. The gene for feather color is located on the Z chromosome, and the red allele is dominant over the brown allele. Three crosses between brown male pigeons and red female pigeons were performed, and the results are shown below. Which of the following is the mean number of male offspring produced by the three crosses?
answer
9
question
The students calculate a chi-squared value of 92.86 and compare it with a critical value of 7.82. Which of the following best completes the chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The null hypothesis can be rejected, and the students should conclude that the data may have resulted from genetic linkage.
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The student calculates a chi-square value of 0.36. Which of the following statements best completes the student's chi-square goodness-of-fit test?
answer
The critical value is 3.84, and the student cannot reject the null hypothesis.
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An African violet grower observes that genetically identical African violet plants growing near the walls of the greenhouse have white flowers, that plants growing farther away from the walls have pale blue flowers, and that plants growing nearest the center of the greenhouse have dark blue flowers. Which of the following best explains the differences in flower color of the African violets in the greenhouse?
answer
An enzyme responsible for flower color does not fold correctly in cooler temperatures, and the greenhouse is warmest in the center.
question
A scientist studying phenotypic variation in a species of butterfly observed that genetically identical caterpillars grown in similar cages but exposed to different colored lights developed into butterflies with differences in wing color and body size, as shown in Table 1. Which of the following best explains the cause of the phenotypic variation observed in the butterflies?
answer
There was differential gene expression of wing color and body size in response to the colors of light the caterpillars were exposed to.
question
Australian dragon lizards have a ZW sex-determination system. The male genotype is homogametic (ZZ), and the female genotype is heterogametic (ZW). However, all eggs incubated at temperatures above 32°C tend to develop into females. Which of the following best explains how the development of phenotypic female Australian dragon lizards with a ZZ genotype occurs when incubation temperatures are above 32°C?
answer
Incubation temperatures above 32°C32°C inhibit the genes on the ZZ chromosome that produce proteins necessary for male development.
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Red-green color blindness in humans is caused by a recessive allele located on the X chromosome. Figure 1 shows the potential offspring of a female who is red-green color-blind and a male with full-color vision. All of the possible male offspring would be color-blind, and all of the possible female offspring would have full-color vision. If during the production of male gametes an error in meiosis occurred, sperm containing both an X and a Y chromosome could be produced. How would the extra chromosome affect the male offspring produced by the gamete?
answer
The male offspring would have full-color vision, because of the presence of the extra X chromosome.
question
Figure 1 illustrates the X and Y chromosomes during meiosis I and meiosis II of normal spermatogenesis in a mammal species. If the normal spermatogenesis is disrupted, the gametes can have different chromosomes than expected. Which of the following is the most likely cause of one of the four gametes having two X chromosomes and one having neither an X nor a Y chromosome?
answer
Nondisjunction of the X chromosome during meiosis II
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Trisomy 21 is a condition in which a child is born with an extra chromosome in pair 21. Researchers assessed the frequency of children born with trisomy 21 by age of the mothers at birth (maternal age) and primary cause of the error leading to trisomy 21. The findings are presented in Figure 1. Based on the data in Figure 1, which of the following is most likely the primary cause of the pattern of frequency of trisomy 21 births in the selected maternal age-groups?
answer
At older maternal ages, the incidence of errors in meiosis during egg production increases, which leads to an increase in nondisjunction.
question
Erwin Chargaff investigated the nucleotide composition of DNA. He analyzed DNA from various organisms and measured the relative amounts of adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T) present in the DNA of each organism. Table 1 contains a selected data set of his results. Which of the following statements best explains the data set?
answer
Since the %A and the %T are approximately the same in each sample, adenine and thymine molecules must pair up in a double-stranded DNA molecule.
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Antibiotics can be used to kill the specific pathogenic bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, that causes tuberculosis. The appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains has made it more difficult to cure M. tuberculosis infections. These antibiotic-resistant bacteria survive and pass on the genes to their offspring, making the resistant phenotype more common in the population. DNA analysis indicates that the genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal DNA. Which of the following statements best explains how the genes for antibiotic resistance can be transmitted between bacteria without the exchange of bacterial chromosomal DNA?
answer
The genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria.
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Which of the following statements best explains the structure and importance of plasmids to prokaryotes?
answer
Plasmids are circular, double-stranded DNADNA molecules that provide genes that may aid in survival of the prokaryotic cell.
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A model of a process involving nucleic acids is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following best explains what process is represented in Figure 1 ?
answer
New DNA strands are being synthesized in the 5′ to 3′ direction from their DNA templates.
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Figure 1 shows some relevant details of a model of how a deoxynucleotide, in this case dTMP, is added to a growing strand of DNA. The features of this model provide evidence for which explanation of why all growing strands are synthesized in a 5′ to 3′ direction?
answer
The phosphate group, attached to the 5′5′ carbon of the dTMPdTMP, forms a covalent bond with the oxygen atom attached to the 3′3′ carbon of the growing strand.
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Figure 1 illustrates a model of the molecules involved in DNA replication and their placement relative to each other Which of the following correctly explains where DNA replication will begin on the strand oriented 5'→3', reading from left to right?
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DNA replication will be initiated immediately to the left of the RNA, since DNA polymerase requires an RNA primer.
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A model that represents a process occurring in a cell of a particular organism is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following correctly explains the process shown in Figure 1 ?
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Initiation of transcription is occurring because a strand of RNARNA is being produced from a DNADNA template strand.
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Figure 1 represents part of a process that occurs in eukaryotic cells. There are untranslated regions (UTR) in this sequence. Which of the following best explains the process represented by Figure 1 ?
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The enzyme-regulated processing of pre‑mRNA into mature mRNA
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Figure 1 represents part of a process essential to gene expression. Which of the following best explains what strand X represents?
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The antisense strand, because it is serving as a template
question
Molecular biologists are studying the processes of transcription and translation and have found that they are very similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, as summarized in Table 1. Based on the information in Table 1, which of the following best predicts a key difference in prokaryotes and eukaryotes with regard to transcription and translation?
answer
The two processes will occur simultaneously in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes.
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Antibiotics interfere with prokaryotic cell functions. Streptomycin is an antibiotic that affects the small ribosomal subunit in prokaryotes. Specifically, streptomycin interferes with the proper binding of tRNA to mRNA in prokaryotic ribosomes. Which of the following best predicts the most direct effect of exposing prokaryotic cells to streptomycin?
answer
Synthesis of polypeptides will be inhibited.
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Nuclear pores regulate the passage of substances into and out of the nucleus. Antibodies such as mAb414 have been used to inhibit the movement of substances through the nuclear pores of rat liver cells. Scientists cultured rat liver cells (eukaryotic) and bacteria cells (prokaryotic) in separate dishes with radioactively labeled amino acids. A specific gene in both cell types was engineered to synthesize identical polypeptide chains, and translation of this gene was measured. The procedure was repeated with mAb414 (the inhibitor) added to each of the two cell cultures, and translation was monitored again. Which of the following sets of graphs best summarizes the results of the experiments?
answer
The image with Eukaryotic cells that are in a flat line.
question
Histone methyltransferases are a class of enzymes that methylate certain amino acid sequences in histone proteins. A research team found that transcription of gene R decreases when histone methyltransferase activity is inhibited. Which scientific claim is most consistent with these findings?
answer
Histone methylation opens up chromatin at gene R so transcription factors can bind to DNA more easily.
question
Figure 1 represents a metabolic process involving the regulation of lactose metabolism by E. coli bacteria. Lactose is utilized for energy by E. coli when glucose is not present. Allolactose is an isomer of lactose that is in the environment of these bacteria when lactose is present. The CAP site prevents the binding of RNA polymerase when glucose is present in the environment. The lacZ, lacY, and lacA genes code for proteins needed for lactose metabolism. Which is a scientific claim that is consistent with the information provided and Figure 1 ?
answer
When bound to the operator, the repressor protein prevents lactose metabolism in E. coli.
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Figure 1 illustrates processes related to control of transcription and translation in a cell. Which of the following scientific claims is most consistent with the information provided in Figure 1 ?
answer
Different genes may be regulated by the same transcription factor.