AP Biology Final Exam Review

25 July 2022
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question
Which metabolic pathway is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration of a glucose molecule?
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Glycolysis
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How many electron carriers are created per glucose molecule in cellular respiration?
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12
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Substrate level phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle occurs
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in the conversion of succinyl CoA to succinate.
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An electron deposited by FADH2 passes through the following ETC components
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complex II,, Q, complex III, cyt c, complex IV
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The rate limiting step in glycolysis is catalyzed by the enzyme
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Phosphofructokinase
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Which electrons flow along the electron transport chains of the mitochondria, which of the following changes occur?
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the pH of the matrix increases
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Anaerobic respiration differs from fermentation in that
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Anaerobic respiration utilizes an electron transport chain while fermentation does not.
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Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis is catalyzed by
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Pyruvate Kinase and Phosphoglycerokinase
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According to the chemiosmotic theory, the energy required to move protons from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space against a concentration gradient comes most directly from...
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Electrons flowing along the ETC
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During respiration, most ATP is formed as a direct result of the net movement of
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Protons down a concentration gradient
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Oxygen consumption can be used as a measure of a metabolic rate because oxygen is
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Necessary for ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation
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Which of the following is a process by which CO2 is released as a by-product of oxidation reduction reactions?
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Krebs cycle
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In which process is two 3 carbon molecules generated from one 6 carbon molecule
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Glycolysis
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Oxidative Phosphorylation occurs in the
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Inner mitochondrial membrane
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Two nutrient solutions are maintained at the same pH. Actively respiring mitochondria are isolated and placed into each of the two solutions. Oxygen gas is bubbled into one solution. The other solution is depleted of available oxygen. Which of the following best explains why ATP production is greater in the tube w/ oxygen than in the tube w/o oxygen.
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In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis produces more ATP than in the absence of oxygen.
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When hydrogen ions are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix, across the inner mitochondrial membrane, and into the intermembrane space, the result is...
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The creation of a proton gradient
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Which of the following best describes the function of the coenzymes NAD+ and FAD in eukaryotes cellular respiration?
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They accept electrons during oxidation-reduction reactions.
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Which of the following describes a metabolic consequence of a shortage oxygen in muscle cells?
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A buildup of lactic acid in the muscle tissue due to fermentation.
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Which of the following statements about chemiosmosis is NOT true?
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Heat energy is required to establish the ETC
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An intermediate electron acceptor for oxidations that occur in both glycolysis and in Krebs cycle reactions
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NAD+
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Guanine diphosphate is converted into guanine triphosphate in which of the following steps:
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Succinyl CoA to Succinate
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Which enzyme is responsible for trapping glucose in the cell?
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Hexokinase
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In glycolysis, an electron carrier is created in which of the following steps?
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Glyceraldehyde 3-P to 1,3 Bisphoglycerate
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What is the ultimate goal of the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?
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Generate a proton gradient
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The final electron acceptor in aerobic organisms is
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Oxygen
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Which of the following agents are capable of inhibiting cell respiration at the rate limiting step?
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ATP and Citrate
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Which of the following enzymes is responsible for splitting the unstable Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphate into two three carbon molecules.
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Aldolase
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In glycolysis, which enzyme is responsible for catalyzing the step that generates NADH?
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Triosephosphatedehydrogenase (Triose 3-P)
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What is the atomic number of an atom that has 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons?
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6
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Which of these refers to atoms with the same atomic number but different atomic masses?
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These atoms are isotopes
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Which of these relationships is true of an uncharged atom?
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The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons
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Which determines the types of chemical reactions that an atom participates in?
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The number of electrons in the outermost electron shell.
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The atom can form up to single covalent bonds
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4
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An ionic bonds involves
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The unequal sharing of an electron pair
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The brackets are indicating a bond between these two H2O molecules.
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Hydrogen
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Which fact does not result from hydrogen bonding between water molecules?
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Water is a universal solvent
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Which of the following pH values represents the greatest concentration of H+ ions?
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2
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How many more hydrogen ions are in a solution with a pH of 2 compared to a solution with a pH of 8?
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10^6
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What is the pH of a solution with a [OH^-]=10^-9
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5
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What is the concentration of hydroxide ion in a solution with a [H+] = 10^-4
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10^-10
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Why isn't this insect drowning in the water?
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Surface tension
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In a neutral solution the concentration of _____.
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hydrogen ions is equal to the concentration of hydroxide ions
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Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen concentration of the lake?
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10^-4 M
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What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake described in the previous question?
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10^-10 M
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Compared with a basic solution at pH=9, the same volume of an acid solution at pH=4 has _____ times as many hydrogen ions (H+)
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10^5
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Enantiomers are molecules that _____.
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are mirror images of each other
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How do these hydrocarbons differ?
How do these hydrocarbons differ?
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One of these hydrocarbons has a double bond.
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How many hydrogen atoms can be attached to carbon B?
How many hydrogen atoms can be attached to carbon B?
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1
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These molecules are _____.
These molecules are _____.
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Trans & Cis
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Glycogen is
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A polysaccharide found in animals
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glucose + glucose ā€”> _____ by _____.
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A disaccharide by dehydration reaction
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Which of these is NOT a lipid?
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Insulin
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This figure is an example of a(n) _____.
This figure is an example of a(n) _____.
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saturated fat, The fatty acid tails lack double bonds.
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Which of the bonds listed below is involved in holding together the backbone of DNA structure?
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Phosphate
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The secondary structure of proteins results from
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Hydrogen Bonds
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The glucose molecules in starch are linked together by
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Peptide bonds
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TRUE OR FALSE All the carbons of an unsaturated hydrocarbon chain in a fat molecule will contain the maximum possible number of hydrogen's.
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False
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What is the molecular formula of a polysaccharide composed of 15 fructose molecules?
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C6H12O6
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How many water molecules are utilized in the digestion a polysaccharide made up of 24 monosaccharides?
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23
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TRUE OR FALSE Lipids, like other three macromolecules form polymers
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False
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The reaction that drives the building of polymers is ______
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Removing H and OH.
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TRUE OR FALSE It is possible to visualize the components of a homogeneous mixture.
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False
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The intramolecular forces in water are
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Polar covalent bonds
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Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?
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Carbohydrate
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Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?
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the two strands of the double helix would separate
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The term amphipathic describes something having
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hydrophobic and hydrophillic regions
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The structural level of protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding
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Primary
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Tertiary structure of a protein results from
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Interaction between R groups of individual amino acids
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Which of the following is true of innate behaviors?
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They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrae and some vertebrae but not mammals.
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Although many chimpanzees live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The likely explanation is that
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The cultural traditions of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations.
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Which of the following is NOT required for a behavioral trait to evolve by genes.
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In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes.
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An organisms internal biological clock is also referred to as its
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Circadian rhythm
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What is the proximate cause of the attacking behavior of the male stickleback when another male stickleback encroaches on its territory?
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Intrusion by another male
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A dog's ability to navigate its way home after being left at the park is an example of
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Spatial Learning
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Pavlov training his dog to salivate at the sound of a bell is an example of
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Classical Conditioning
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Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems?
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Landscape ecology
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If the direction of the earth's rotation reversed, the most predictable effect would be
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Winds blowing from west to east along the equator
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When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes
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In biomes at different latitudes
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Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?
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Cyanobacteria-primary producer
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A population's carrying capacity
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May change as environmental conditions change
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Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves? A) Semelparous; r-selected B) Semelparous; K-selected C) Iteroparous; r-selected D) Iteroparous; K-selected E) Iteroparous; N-selected
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B) Semelparous; K-selected
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According to the logistic growth equation
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population growth is zero when N equals K.
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Which point on the curve in the diagram best represents the carrying capacity of the environment for the population shown?
Which point on the curve in the diagram best represents the carrying capacity of the environment for the population shown?
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C
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A population of 250 birds inhabit the canopy of a tropical rain forest that has a carrying capacity of 400 birds. What is the maximum population growth rate (rmax) if the population grows to 283 in one year?
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0.35
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An overlap in the niches of two species will most frequently result in
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Interspecific competition
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TRUE OR FALSE Realized niche differs from fundamental niche in that realized niche involves the sharing of resources
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False
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All of the following are density-dependent factors that limit animal population EXCEPT
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Weather
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All of the following statements concerning characteristics of predator-prey relationships are correct EXCEPT:
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The production of large numbers of offspring within very short periods of time ensures the survival of some prey populations.
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Which of the following communities is likely to be the most stable?
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One with high species diversity
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Which of the following best describes opportunistic, or r-strategy organisms?
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They reach sexual maturity rapidly.
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Assume there are 50,000 joules (J) of energy available in trophic level II in the figure. According to the conventional model of energy flow in ecosystems, which of the following statements correctly describes the flow of energy in systems?
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Trophic level IV has approximately 500 J of available energy.
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In reef ecosystems, corals often have microalgae living inside them. The algae supply the corals with nutrients, and the coral gives shelter to the algae. Which of the following interactions best describes the relationship between corals and the algae?
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Mutualism
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Which of the following terrestrial biomes has the net highest primary productivity?
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Tropical Rain
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Which box represents a carbon source?
Which box represents a carbon source?
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D
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Which of the following processes is illustrated by the downward arrows from the atmosphere that show the conversion of nitrogen gas into usable forms to producers?
Which of the following processes is illustrated by the downward arrows from the atmosphere that show the conversion of nitrogen gas into usable forms to producers?
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Nitrogen assimilation
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The total rate of photosynthesis in a given area
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Net primary productivity
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A temperate grassland biome has gross primary productivity of 3,480 kcal/m^2/yr and a net primary productivity of 2,000 kcal/m^2/yr. Which of the following is the approximate number of kcal/m^2/yr available to herbivores in that biome?
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5480